a nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets after securing the clients airway and initiatin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.

3. A client is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Wear compression stockings daily.' Wearing compression stockings is essential after knee surgery to prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect as crossing legs when sitting can increase the risk of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because performing range-of-motion exercises every 4 hours may not be suitable for all clients post total knee arthroplasty. Choice D is incorrect as applying heat to the incision site can increase the risk of infection.

4. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (hyponatremia), the nurse should administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV to help increase sodium levels. Choice B, administering a hypotonic IV solution, would further decrease the sodium level. Choice C, encouraging oral fluid intake, is contraindicated as it can dilute the sodium concentration further. Choice D, restricting oral fluid intake, could worsen the client's condition by leading to dehydration and further electrolyte imbalances.

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A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?
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