Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

2. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Lie down after meals to reduce discomfort.
• B. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
• C. Avoid eating spicy foods.
• D. Eat three large meals each day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid eating spicy foods.' Spicy foods can exacerbate symptoms of GERD by irritating the esophagus and causing discomfort. It is important for clients with GERD to avoid spicy foods to help manage their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with GERD should not lie down after meals as this can worsen symptoms, limiting fluid intake to only 1 liter per day may not be appropriate for everyone, and eating three large meals each day can put pressure on the stomach and worsen GERD symptoms.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
• B. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
• C. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
• D. Mild headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?

• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Pseudo-parkinsonism
• D. Acute dystonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.

5. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert the catheter until urine flows, then advance 2.5 to 5 cm (1 to 2 in) further.
• B. Advance the catheter 7.5 to 10 cm (3 to 4 in) after urine begins to flow.
• C. Advance the catheter 17 to 22.5 cm (7 to 9 in) after urine begins to flow.
• D. Advance the catheter 5 to 7.5 cm (2 to 3 in) after urine begins to flow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client, it is crucial to advance the catheter 17 to 22.5 cm after urine begins to flow. This helps ensure proper placement in the male urethra, which is longer compared to females. Choice A is incorrect as advancing only 2.5 to 5 cm would not reach the correct placement in male clients. Choice B is incorrect as advancing 7.5 to 10 cm is insufficient to reach the appropriate location in male clients. Choice D is also incorrect as advancing 5 to 7.5 cm would likely not reach the desired placement in male clients.

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