Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by observing which of the following?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all fields
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because when a client reports feeling less anxious, it suggests that the treatment for a pulmonary embolism is effective. This is a good indicator of the client's overall well-being and response to treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a chest x-ray revealing increased density in all fields, diminished breath sounds auscultated bilaterally, and ABG results showing specific values do not directly correlate with the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. While these assessments are important for monitoring the client's condition, the client's subjective report of feeling less anxious provides a more direct insight into the impact of the treatment.

3. A client with a colostomy needs optimal skin integrity. What action should the nurse take to promote this?

• A. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.
• B. Change the colostomy pouch every 3 days.
• C. Use a barrier cream to protect the skin from the pouch contents.
• D. Cleanse the stoma with hydrogen peroxide.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To promote optimal skin integrity in a client with a colostomy, using a barrier cream to protect the skin from the irritating effects of the colostomy pouch contents is essential. Cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol (Choice A) can be too harsh and drying for the skin. Changing the colostomy pouch every 3 days (Choice B) is important for hygiene but using a barrier cream is more directly related to skin protection. Cleaning the stoma with hydrogen peroxide (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be too abrasive for the sensitive stoma area.

4. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. Carrots
• B. Whole grains
• C. Lean beef
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lean beef.' Lean beef is a good source of protein, which is essential for a balanced diet. While carrots and bananas are healthy food choices, they are not specifically recommended for clients with hypertension. Whole grains are a better alternative to refined grains for individuals with hypertension, but lean beef is a more suitable recommendation due to its protein content.

5. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a potassium supplement.
• B. Avoid foods that contain potassium.
• C. Limit your fluid intake while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

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