ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Infuse the PRBCs over 8 hours.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the PRBCs through a 24-gauge catheter.
- D. Administer the PRBCs with lactated Ringer's solution.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type and Rh factor is crucial before administering blood products to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because PRBCs are typically infused over a specific time frame based on hospital policy and client condition, not necessarily over 8 hours. Option C is incorrect as PRBCs are usually administered through a larger gauge catheter to prevent hemolysis. Option D is incorrect because PRBCs are typically administered with normal saline and not lactated Ringer's solution.
3. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Provide humidified air
- D. Provide chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, addressing the underlying cause of hypoxia. Repositioning the patient, providing humidified air, and chest physiotherapy may be beneficial in certain situations but are not the primary interventions for hypoxia. Administering oxygen is crucial to quickly alleviate hypoxia and support the patient's respiratory function.
4. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will decrease my potassium levels.
- B. I should eat a banana every day to increase my potassium intake.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience a cough.
- D. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should weigh myself once a week.
- B. I should limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- C. I should report a weight gain of 2 pounds in one day.
- D. I should reduce my protein intake to prevent fluid retention.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting a sudden weight gain of 2 pounds in one day is crucial in managing heart failure because it can indicate fluid retention, a common symptom in heart failure. Option A is incorrect as weighing oneself once a week may not provide timely information about fluid retention. Option B is incorrect because fluid intake restriction is individualized and generally involves more specific guidance. Option D is incorrect as protein intake is important but reducing it solely to avoid fluid retention is not the primary focus in heart failure management.
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