ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.
2. A client who has a new prescription for alendronate is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with a full glass of water before breakfast.
- B. I should take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- C. I should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.
- D. I should avoid taking this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication." This statement indicates understanding because clients taking alendronate should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water after waking up, not before breakfast. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken separately from antacids.
3. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Semi-Fowler's position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Prone position
- D. Supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.
4. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary choices by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Carrots
- B. Milk
- C. Leafy green vegetables
- D. Bananas
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Leafy green vegetables. Leafy green vegetables are rich in calcium, which is essential for bone health and can help prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Carrots (choice A), while nutritious, are not as high in calcium as leafy green vegetables. Milk (choice B) is also a good source of calcium but may not be suitable for clients who are lactose intolerant. Bananas (choice D) are a healthy fruit choice but do not provide significant amounts of calcium needed for osteoporosis.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. Heart rate 58/min.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
- D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.
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