Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Baked chicken
• B. Grilled salmon
• C. Steamed broccoli
• D. Fried foods

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with chronic pancreatitis should avoid fried foods because they are high in fat, which can exacerbate symptoms and lead to further complications. Baked chicken (choice A), grilled salmon (choice B), and steamed broccoli (choice C) are generally healthier options and can be included in a low-fat diet suitable for individuals with chronic pancreatitis.

3. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
• B. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
• C. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
• D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for cord care is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This helps prevent infection and promotes healing. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of when the cord stump falls off can vary, usually between 1-3 weeks. Choice B is incorrect as a black cord stump can be a normal part of the healing process, so it is unnecessary to contact the provider for this reason. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily is not recommended as it can delay healing and cause irritation.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV
• B. Administer a hypotonic IV solution
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake
• D. Restrict oral fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (hyponatremia), the nurse should administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV to help increase sodium levels. Choice B, administering a hypotonic IV solution, would further decrease the sodium level. Choice C, encouraging oral fluid intake, is contraindicated as it can dilute the sodium concentration further. Choice D, restricting oral fluid intake, could worsen the client's condition by leading to dehydration and further electrolyte imbalances.

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