a nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets after securing the clients airway and initiatin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a negative pressure room. This action is necessary to prevent the spread of tuberculosis, as it is transmitted via airborne particles. Placing the client in droplet isolation (choice C) is not sufficient for tuberculosis, as it requires airborne precautions. Wearing a surgical mask (choice B) when entering the client's room may not provide adequate protection against airborne transmission. Placing a surgical mask on the client when transporting them (choice D) does not address the need for environmental controls to contain infectious particles.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which result is reportable?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia is a reportable sexually transmitted infection. Reporting cases of Chlamydia to the health department is crucial for disease surveillance, contact tracing, and implementing public health interventions. Herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are not typically reportable infections, as they do not pose the same public health risks as Chlamydia.

4. A nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about measures to take when caring for a client who is on contact precautions. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct measure to include when caring for a client on contact precautions is to wear gloves when providing care. Gloves help prevent the spread of infection and cross-contamination. Choice A is incorrect because the protective gown should be removed before leaving the client's room to prevent the spread of pathogens. Choice B is incorrect as clients on contact precautions should be in a room with negative pressure to prevent the spread of airborne contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask when changing linens is not specifically required for contact precautions.

5. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is crucial in ensuring that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen to meet the body's demands. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be beneficial in specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but may not be the primary intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may be necessary in cases of dehydration or shock but would not directly address respiratory distress. Providing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) can help mobilize secretions in conditions like cystic fibrosis but is not the first-line intervention for respiratory distress.

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