Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing care to a patient who has just received a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

• A. Risk for bleeding
• B. Risk for infection
• C. Impaired gas exchange
• D. Imbalanced nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Risk for infection is a high priority due to the patient's compromised immune system from AML.

2. Nurse Mike is providing care to a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The nurse knows that the client is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which of the following laboratory values requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased uric acid level
• B. Increased serum potassium level
• C. Increased serum sodium level
• D. Increased fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased uric acid level. In tumor lysis syndrome, rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids into the bloodstream. Uric acid can accumulate rapidly, leading to hyperuricemia, which can result in kidney damage due to urate crystal deposition. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent renal complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while electrolyte imbalances are common in tumor lysis syndrome, hyperuricemia with potential kidney damage is the priority concern that requires immediate attention.

3. A nurse knows that the patient with stage 3 based on Ann-arber staging has:

• A. 2 or more lymph node involvement and outside the lymph nodes
• B. 2 or more lymph node involvement on one side of the body
• C. 2 or more lymph nodes on the breasts
• D. 2 or more lymph node involvement on both sides of the body

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the Ann Arbor staging system for lymphomas, Stage 3 indicates that the disease has spread beyond the initial lymph node region to involve lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm (i.e., the areas above and below the diaphragm). This includes lymphatic involvement in both the thoracic and abdominal regions, signifying a more advanced disease state.

4. A new nurse has been assigned a client who is in the hospital to receive iodine-131 treatment. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Ensure the client is placed in protective isolation.
• B. Have pregnant visitors stay 6 feet from the client.
• C. No special action is necessary to care for this client.
• D. Read the policy on handling radioactive excreta.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Handling radioactive excreta requires special precautions; the nurse must be familiar with the facility's policies.

5. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.

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