ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?
- A. Call 911.
- B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
- C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
- D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.
2. Nurse Farah is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery?
- A. Pain at the incision site
- B. Arm edema on the operative side
- C. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
- D. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Arm edema on the operative side (lymphedema) is a known complication after a mastectomy. This can indicate impaired lymphatic drainage, leading to fluid accumulation in the arm. Pain at the incision site is expected postoperatively and may not necessarily indicate a complication. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain is a common finding in the immediate postoperative period. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site could be related to nerve damage or surgical manipulation, but it is not a typical complication after a mastectomy.
3. Nurse Mike is providing care to a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The nurse knows that the client is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which of the following laboratory values requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased uric acid level
- B. Increased serum potassium level
- C. Increased serum sodium level
- D. Increased fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased uric acid level. In tumor lysis syndrome, rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids into the bloodstream. Uric acid can accumulate rapidly, leading to hyperuricemia, which can result in kidney damage due to urate crystal deposition. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent renal complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while electrolyte imbalances are common in tumor lysis syndrome, hyperuricemia with potential kidney damage is the priority concern that requires immediate attention.
4. Which of the following management strategies is not included for a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs?
- A. Limit exposure of pregnant visitors
- B. Protect client from infection
- C. Allow client to use makeup and wig
- D. Administer IV fluids as ordered
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chemotherapy can lead to hair loss, and while using wigs is common, it is not a primary management strategy. The focus should be on limiting exposure to pregnant visitors to prevent harm to the fetus, protecting the client from infections due to a compromised immune system, and administering IV fluids as ordered to maintain hydration levels. Allowing the client to use makeup and wigs is not a primary concern when managing a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs.
5. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
- A. Pruritis (itching)
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Altered glucose metabolism
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access