Nursing Elites

1. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

2. The nurse is assessing the colostomy of a client who has had an abdominal perineal resection for a bowel tumor. Which assessment finding indicates that the colostomy is beginning to function?

• A. The passage of flatus
• B. Absent bowel sounds
• C. The client’s ability to tolerate food
• D. Bloody drainage from the colostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The passage of flatus (gas) from the colostomy is an early sign that the bowel is beginning to function after surgery. This indicates that peristalsis, or the movement of the intestines, has resumed and that the digestive system is actively moving gas and eventually stool through the bowel and out of the colostomy. It’s a positive sign that the bowel is recovering from the surgery and starting to work as intended.

3. Which of the following management strategies is not included for a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs?

• A. Limit exposure of pregnant visitors
• B. Protect client from infection
• C. Allow client to use makeup and wig
• D. Administer IV fluids as ordered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chemotherapy can lead to hair loss, and while using wigs is common, it is not a primary management strategy. The focus should be on limiting exposure to pregnant visitors to prevent harm to the fetus, protecting the client from infections due to a compromised immune system, and administering IV fluids as ordered to maintain hydration levels. Allowing the client to use makeup and wigs is not a primary concern when managing a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs.

4. The nurse knows that all of the following are risk factors for breast cancer except:

• A. Family history
• B. Nulliparity
• C. Chest xray
• D. Multiple sex partners

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Multiple sex partners are not a recognized risk factor for breast cancer. Breast cancer is primarily influenced by hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors, not sexual activity or the number of sexual partners. Established risk factors for breast cancer include family history, hormonal factors such as early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity (having no children), as well as certain environmental exposures.

5. A patient has a diagnosis of multiple myeloma and the nurse is preparing health education in preparation for discharge from the hospital. What action should the nurse promote?

• A. Daily performance of weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy
• B. Close monitoring of urine output and kidney function
• C. Daily administration of warfarin (Coumadin) as ordered
• D. Safe use of supplementary oxygen in the home setting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renal function must be monitored closely in the patient with multiple myeloma.

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