Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?

• A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
• B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
• C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
• D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.

2. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?

• A. Cardiac function
• B. Renal function
• C. Liver function
• D. Pulmonary function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.

4. Nurse Farah is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery?

• A. Pain at the incision site
• B. Arm edema on the operative side
• C. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
• D. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Arm edema on the operative side (lymphedema) is a known complication after a mastectomy. This can indicate impaired lymphatic drainage, leading to fluid accumulation in the arm. Pain at the incision site is expected postoperatively and may not necessarily indicate a complication. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain is a common finding in the immediate postoperative period. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site could be related to nerve damage or surgical manipulation, but it is not a typical complication after a mastectomy.

5. A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving radiation therapy. What side effect should the nurse monitor for that is most common with this type of treatment?

• A. Alopecia
• B. Fatigue
• C. Nausea
• D. Mucositis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Mucositis is a common side effect of radiation therapy that should be closely monitored.

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