Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?

• A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
• B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
• C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
• D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.

2. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

3. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?

• A. Yearly Pap tests
• B. Testicular self-examination
• C. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
• D. Screening mammograms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Primary prevention involves actions taken to reduce the risk of developing cancer by preventing exposure to known risk factors or promoting healthy behaviors. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen is an example of primary prevention because it aims to reduce the risk of skin cancer by minimizing exposure to harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Encouraging protective measures such as wearing sunscreen, avoiding tanning beds, and wearing protective clothing are all steps to prevent skin cancer before it develops.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, what intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
• B. Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
• C. Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day.
• D. Assign responsibility for the patient's nutrition to the patient's friends and family.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. Option A (TPN) and B (PEG tube placement) are more invasive interventions and should be considered if non-oral routes are necessary. Option D is not appropriate as the primary responsibility for a patient's nutrition should lie with healthcare professionals to ensure proper management and monitoring.

5. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?

• A. Pruritis (itching)
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Altered glucose metabolism
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.

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