Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which characteristic of the client's history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?

• A. The client is a smoker.
• B. The client has a history of IV drug use.
• C. The client was treated for an STD 2 years ago.
• D. The client has a family history of cardiac disease.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of IV drug use is significant in cases of fever of unknown origin, as it increases the risk of infections like endocarditis, which can present with persistent fever. Smoking (Choice A) is not directly linked to FUO. While a history of STD treatment (Choice C) may be relevant, it is less likely to be associated with FUO compared to IV drug use. Family history of cardiac disease (Choice D) is not typically a primary factor in the diagnosis of FUO.

2. Which of the following statements characterizes irritable bowel syndrome?

• A. Typically does not cause anemia
• B. Not generally associated with intestinal E. coli
• C. Can be associated with anxiety and/or depression
• D. Not often associated with bloody diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. While IBS can lead to symptoms like diarrhea or constipation, it typically does not cause anemia (choice A), is not generally associated with intestinal E. coli (choice B), and is not often associated with bloody diarrhea (choice D). However, IBS can indeed be associated with anxiety and/or depression (choice C) due to the gut-brain axis, a bidirectional communication system between the gut and the brain. This association is well-documented in IBS patients, highlighting the importance of considering psychological factors in managing the condition.

3. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in a patient with renal failure?

• A. Risk for infection related to decreased erythropoiesis
• B. Activity intolerance related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
• C. Powerlessness related to sequelae of renal failure
• D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to inadequate erythropoietin synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a patient with renal failure, the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is primarily aimed at addressing the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to impaired erythropoiesis. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, thereby improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This would directly address the activity intolerance commonly seen in patients with renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of using epoetin alfa in this context. Risk for infection, powerlessness, and ineffective breathing pattern are important considerations in the care of a patient with renal failure, but they are not the primary indications for using epoetin alfa.

4. A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?

• A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
• B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
• D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.

5. Which scenario would be an example of a child born with congenital insensitivity to pain?

• A. A child who does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli.
• B. A child who cries excessively and has a heightened response to pain.
• C. A child who experiences pain but has difficulty expressing it.
• D. A child who is sensitive to minor stimuli but has a delayed response to severe pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct scenario depicting a child with congenital insensitivity to pain is when the child does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli. This condition is characterized by the inability to feel and react to pain, resulting in a lack of typical responses such as crying or withdrawal when hurt. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a child with heightened pain sensitivity, opposite to the insensitivity seen in the condition. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests the child feels pain but struggles to communicate it, which is not the case with congenital insensitivity to pain. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a child who is sensitive to minor stimuli and has delayed responses to severe pain, which is not indicative of congenital insensitivity to pain.

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