a nurse is providing care for a 44 year old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin fuo which characteristic of the cl

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which characteristic of the client's history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?

A. The client is a smoker.
B. The client has a history of IV drug use.
C. The client was treated for an STD 2 years ago.
D. The client has a family history of cardiac disease.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of IV drug use is significant in cases of fever of unknown origin, as it increases the risk of infections like endocarditis, which can present with persistent fever. Smoking (Choice A) is not directly linked to FUO. While a history of STD treatment (Choice C) may be relevant, it is less likely to be associated with FUO compared to IV drug use. Family history of cardiac disease (Choice D) is not typically a primary factor in the diagnosis of FUO.

2. Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of asthma?

A. Chronic inflammation of the bronchial lining
B. Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction
C. Damage to alveoli reducing lung elasticity
D. Overproduction of mucus by the goblet cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction." In asthma, there is an inflammatory response that leads to bronchoconstriction, causing the airways to narrow and making it difficult to breathe. Choice A is incorrect as chronic inflammation is a feature of asthma but not the primary pathophysiological mechanism. Choice C is incorrect as damage to alveoli is more characteristic of conditions like emphysema. Choice D is incorrect as overproduction of mucus is a feature of chronic bronchitis, not asthma.

3. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What important instruction should the nurse provide about the use of this medication?

A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
B. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
C. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
D. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels. This is crucial for the effectiveness of medroxyprogesterone acetate in treating endometriosis. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific instruction related to food intake. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is not a specific consideration for this medication.

4. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?

A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.

5. Which of the following conditions is associated with a positive Homan's sign?

A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Peripheral artery disease
C. Varicose veins
D. Lymphedema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Homan's sign is indicative of deep vein thrombosis. This sign is elicited by dorsiflexing the foot of a patient with the knee slightly flexed, resulting in calf pain. Peripheral artery disease (choice B) is associated with decreased blood flow to the extremities, but it does not produce a positive Homan's sign. Varicose veins (choice C) are enlarged, twisted veins that are typically not related to Homan's sign. Lymphedema (choice D) is swelling caused by a lymphatic system blockage or dysfunction and is not linked to Homan's sign.