ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A 21-year-old male is brought to the ED following a night of partying in his fraternity. His friends found him 'asleep' and couldn't get him to respond. They cannot recall how many alcoholic beverages he drank the night before. While educating a student nurse and the man's friends, the nurse begins by explaining that alcohol is:
- A. A water-soluble compound that is easily absorbed by the gastric lining of the stomach.
- B. Very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier.
- C. Able to reverse the transport of some substances to remove them from the brain.
- D. Very likely to cause sedation and therefore the client just needs to sleep it off.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alcohol is very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier, leading to its effects on the central nervous system and causing symptoms like sedation and unconsciousness. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is not water-soluble; it is lipid-soluble. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol does not reverse the transport of substances from the brain. Choice D is incorrect as sedation from alcohol is not a reason to just 'sleep it off' in cases of alcohol poisoning, which can be life-threatening and requires medical attention.
2. In which of the following cases is dehydration more likely to occur?
- A. A 50-year-old woman who is a bodybuilder
- B. A 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese
- C. A 10-year-old child who is thin
- D. A 30-year-old with multiple sclerosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dehydration is more likely to occur in a 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese due to the increased risk of conditions like diabetes and heart disease that can lead to fluid imbalances. Being morbidly obese can also strain the body's systems, increasing the need for water. The other choices are less likely to experience dehydration as a primary concern. While being a bodybuilder may require strict hydration practices, dehydration is more prevalent in individuals with conditions like obesity.
3. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What key instruction should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide regarding the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis is to take the medication at the same time each day. This helps to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals. Choice C is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation rather than discontinuing the medication without medical advice. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.
4. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?
- A. A patient who has experienced a spinal cord injury and reports severe, burning pain in his legs.
- B. A patient who reports severe pain in her hand following a surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome.
- C. A patient who develops pain in his foot following a fracture and immobilization with a cast.
- D. A patient who experiences chronic pain and swelling in his arm following a brachial plexus injury.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.
5. Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
- B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
- C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
- D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. In acute glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomerulus, leading to inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. These processes collectively reduce the glomerular filtration rate. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the pathophysiologic process in acute glomerulonephritis. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries, necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure, and scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule are not the primary mechanisms responsible for the decreased filtration rate in this condition.
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