Nursing Elites

1. A 21-year-old male is brought to the ED following a night of partying in his fraternity. His friends found him 'asleep' and couldn't get him to respond. They cannot recall how many alcoholic beverages he drank the night before. While educating a student nurse and the man's friends, the nurse begins by explaining that alcohol is:

• A. A water-soluble compound that is easily absorbed by the gastric lining of the stomach.
• B. Very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier.
• C. Able to reverse the transport of some substances to remove them from the brain.
• D. Very likely to cause sedation and therefore the client just needs to sleep it off.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alcohol is very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier, leading to its effects on the central nervous system and causing symptoms like sedation and unconsciousness. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is not water-soluble; it is lipid-soluble. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol does not reverse the transport of substances from the brain. Choice D is incorrect as sedation from alcohol is not a reason to just 'sleep it off' in cases of alcohol poisoning, which can be life-threatening and requires medical attention.

2. Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:

• A. hypochromic and microcytic.
• B. hypochromic and macrocytic.
• C. normochromic and microcytic.
• D. normochromic and normocytic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is characterized by normochromic and normocytic red blood cells. In chronic inflammation, the body typically produces enough red blood cells, but they are often smaller and paler than normal (normocytic and normochromic). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hypochromic and microcytic, hypochromic and macrocytic, and normochromic and microcytic anemias are not typically associated with chronic inflammation.

3. A patient with a complex medical history is considering the use of oral contraceptives. The nurse should be aware that many antibiotics and antiseizure medications cause what effect when combined with oral contraceptives?

• A. Increased risk of pregnancy
• B. Increased blood pressure
• C. Increased risk of thromboembolism
• D. Increased gastric acid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of pregnancy. Certain antibiotics and anticonvulsants can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing liver enzymes that metabolize the hormones more quickly. This interaction can lead to a decreased contraceptive effect, thereby increasing the risk of pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the effect of antibiotics and antiseizure medications on oral contraceptives.

4. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:

• A. Leukemia
• B. Sideroblastic anemia
• C. Hemosiderosis
• D. Polycythemia vera

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The client's ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy.
• D. Initiate CPR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client presenting with chest pain, shortness of breath, and ST-segment elevation on ECG, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography. This procedure is crucial in diagnosing and treating acute myocardial infarction promptly. Administering aspirin (Choice A) is important but not the priority over emergent coronary angiography. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice C) is supportive but does not address the underlying cause of the ST-segment elevation. Initiating CPR (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario as the client is stable and conscious.

Similar Questions