Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?

• A. Muscle atrophy
• B. Facial weakness
• C. Ptosis and diplopia
• D. Increased muscle tone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.

2. How are antibodies produced?

• A. B cells
• B. T cells
• C. Helper cells
• D. Memory cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antibodies are produced by B cells. B cells are specialized white blood cells that generate antibodies as part of the immune response. B cells differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies. T cells play a role in cell-mediated immunity, not antibody production. Helper cells, or helper T cells, assist in activating B cells but do not directly produce antibodies. Memory cells store information about previous infections but do not actively produce antibodies.

3. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
• B. Prepare the client for plasmapheresis.
• C. Administer analgesics for pain management.
• D. Initiate passive range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.

4. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?

• A. Coagulative necrosis
• B. Liquefactive necrosis
• C. Caseous necrosis
• D. Autonecrosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

5. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Bronchospasm
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.

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