Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?

• A. Muscle atrophy
• B. Facial weakness
• C. Ptosis and diplopia
• D. Increased muscle tone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.

2. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

• A. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids.
• B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins.
• C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment.
• D. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

3. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
• D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

4. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?

• A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
• B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
• C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
• D. An incision from an open appendectomy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.

5. In clients with a cognitive impairment disorder, the phenomenon of increased confusion in the early evening hours is called:

• A. Aphasia.
• B. Agnosia.
• C. Sundowning.
• D. Confabulation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sundowning. Sundowning is a phenomenon where individuals with cognitive impairment experience increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or early evening. This often occurs in conditions like dementia. Choice A, Aphasia, refers to a language disorder affecting a person's ability to communicate. Choice B, Agnosia, is the inability to recognize objects. Choice D, Confabulation, is the production of false memories without the intention to deceive, often seen in conditions like Korsakoff's syndrome.

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