Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?

• A. Muscle atrophy
• B. Facial weakness
• C. Ptosis and diplopia
• D. Increased muscle tone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.

2. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

3. What does a client's symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion indicate?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Lower extremity compartment syndrome
• C. Consuming too much food at once
• D. Improved kidney function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms suggest a serious condition that can occur after head trauma, requiring immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome presents with symptoms related to pressure build-up in the muscles of the legs, not the head. Consuming too much food at once does not manifest with these neurological symptoms. Improved kidney function would not present with symptoms such as headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness.

4. Staff at the care facility note that a woman has started complaining of back pain in recent weeks and occasionally groans in pain. She has many comorbidities that require several prescription medications. The nurse knows that which factor is likely to complicate the clinician's assessment and treatment of the client's pain?

• A. Her advanced age may influence the expression and perception of pain.
• B. Her polypharmacy may complicate the pain management process.
• C. Her underlying conditions may mask or exacerbate the pain.
• D. Her cognitive function may decline, making pain assessment difficult.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polypharmacy, or the use of multiple medications, can complicate pain management due to drug interactions and side effects. While advanced age can influence pain perception, it is not the most likely factor to complicate assessment and treatment in this scenario. Underlying conditions may affect pain perception but do not directly complicate the management process. Cognitive decline can hinder pain assessment, but in this case, the focus is on factors directly impacting the treatment process, making option B the most appropriate choice.

5. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.

• A. Ferritin
• B. Gastric enzymes
• C. Intrinsic factor
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.

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