ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?
- A. Muscle atrophy
- B. Facial weakness
- C. Ptosis and diplopia
- D. Increased muscle tone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.
2. On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?
- A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
- B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
- C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
- D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.
3. What is the best method to identify which type of stroke the client has?
- A. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram STAT
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for electrolytes and blood cultures
- C. Ask the client about current allergies
- D. Obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT. A cranial CT scan is the best method to quickly identify the type of stroke a client is experiencing. Options A, B, and C are not appropriate for identifying the type of stroke as they are not specific to assessing stroke types.
4. In emphysema, what features result in impaired oxygenation?
- A. The bronchioles are inflamed and filled with mucus
- B. The alveoli have lost surfactant and collapse
- C. Enlarged, permanently inflated alveoli
- D. The accumulation of purulent fluid in the bronchioles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In emphysema, impaired oxygenation results from enlarged and permanently inflated alveoli, leading to reduced surface area for gas exchange. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In emphysema, bronchioles are not typically filled with mucus, alveoli losing surfactant and collapsing is more characteristic of conditions like atelectasis, and purulent fluid accumulation in the bronchioles is commonly seen in conditions like pneumonia, not emphysema.
5. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
- A. Alkalosis and hyperventilation
- B. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia
- C. Alkalosis and high potassium
- D. Elevated sodium and acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, hypoxemia (low blood oxygen) and hypercapnia (high blood carbon dioxide) are commonly observed. Choice A is incorrect because alkalosis (high pH) and hyperventilation are not typically seen in acute respiratory failure. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions alkalosis and high potassium, which are not characteristic of acute respiratory failure. Choice D is also incorrect because elevated sodium and acidosis are not typically associated with acute respiratory failure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access