Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?

• A. Muscle atrophy
• B. Facial weakness
• C. Ptosis and diplopia
• D. Increased muscle tone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.

2. When does pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsen?

• A. with rest because blood flow decreases.
• B. with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away.
• C. when the leg is in a dependent position because blood pools.
• D. when the leg is touched or massaged because cytokines are released.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsens with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away from the affected area, leading to decreased perfusion and exacerbation of symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because resting, dependent position, and touch/massage do not typically worsen the pain associated with peripheral artery disease.

3. Which of the following is NOT an example of clinical manifestations of leukemia and lymphoma?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Increased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infections
• D. Increased energy and strength

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased energy and strength. Leukemia and lymphoma typically present with symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, increased risk of bleeding, and increased risk of infections. Patients with these conditions often experience a lack of energy and strength due to the disease's impact on the body. Therefore, increased energy and strength are not typical manifestations of leukemia and lymphoma.

4. A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is a common initial treatment strategy?

• A. Insulin therapy
• B. Lifestyle modification and metformin
• C. Sulfonylureas
• D. Thiazolidinediones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifestyle modification and metformin. When managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, initial treatment often involves lifestyle changes such as adopting a healthy diet and increasing physical activity, along with the oral medication metformin. Insulin therapy (choice A) is usually reserved for cases where lifestyle changes and oral medications are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and thiazolidinediones (choice D) are also oral medications used in diabetes management, but they are not typically recommended as first-line treatments due to various side effects and considerations in type 2 diabetes management.

5. A 34-year-old woman has presented to the clinic for the first time, and the nurse learns that she has been taking Depo Provera for the past 13 years. This aspect of the woman's medical history should prompt what assessment?

• A. Cardiac stress testing
• B. Renal ultrasound
• C. Bone density testing
• D. Evaluation of triglyceride levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is bone density testing (Choice C). Long-term use of Depo Provera, a hormonal contraceptive, is associated with decreased bone mineral density. Assessing bone density is crucial to monitor for potential osteoporosis. Cardiac stress testing (Choice A) is not indicated based on the medication history provided. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and evaluation of triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not directly related to the use of Depo Provera.

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