ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is preparing to mix NPH and regular insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Inject air into the NPH insulin vial.
- B. Withdraw the prescribed dose of regular insulin.
- C. Withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin.
- D. Mix the two insulins in separate syringes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When mixing NPH and regular insulin in the same syringe, the nurse should first inject air into the NPH insulin vial. This action prevents contamination by allowing an easier withdrawal of the correct dose of NPH insulin after withdrawing the regular insulin. Withdrawing the prescribed dose of regular insulin (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the initial step of injecting air into the NPH vial. Similarly, withdrawing the prescribed dose of NPH insulin (Choice C) is incorrect as it skips the crucial first step. Mixing the two insulins in separate syringes (Choice D) is not ideal since combining them in one syringe is a common practice to reduce the number of injections for the patient.
2. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor urine output
- B. Check blood pressure
- C. Monitor IV site
- D. Check respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Vomiting.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Epigastric pain.
- D. Contractions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 33 weeks of gestation, the nurse should monitor the client for contractions. Contractions can indicate preterm labor, which requires immediate attention. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not typically associated with amniocentesis complications at this gestational age.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
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