Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction?

• A. Administer aspirin
• B. Administer nitroglycerin
• C. Administer morphine
• D. Prepare for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation. Aspirin is a common medication given during the early stages of a heart attack to prevent additional clotting. Administering nitroglycerin may also be indicated to help relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels, but aspirin takes precedence due to its role in preventing clot progression. Administering morphine is not typically the first intervention in myocardial infarction as it can mask symptoms and delay other critical treatments. Surgery is not an immediate priority in the initial management of a myocardial infarction.

2. A client is receiving radiation therapy for cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Apply alcohol-free lotions to your skin to prevent dryness.
• B. Avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight.
• C. Cleanse the irradiated area with mild soap and water.
• D. Apply ice packs to the irradiated area to prevent swelling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight. Direct sunlight can further damage the skin during radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol-based lotions can irritate the skin further. Choice C is incorrect because mild soap and water can be drying to the skin. Choice D is incorrect because applying ice packs can cause additional skin damage during radiation therapy.

3. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
• C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.

4. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

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