a nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.

2. A client is taking sucralfate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sucralfate is most effective when taken 1 hour before meals to protect the stomach lining. Option B is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken after meals. Option C is incorrect because sucralfate is typically taken on a regular schedule, not just when symptoms occur. Option D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with milk, as it can interfere with its effectiveness.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 20 mL/hr is below the expected range and indicates potential renal failure, requiring immediate intervention. In postoperative patients, a urine output less than 30 mL/hr suggests inadequate renal perfusion, a concern that needs prompt attention to prevent renal complications. The heart rate of 110/min, temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), and respiratory rate of 18/min are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate issues.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.

5. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected DVT because it helps prevent further clot formation and complications. Applying compression stockings (choice B) can be a preventive measure but is not the primary intervention for treating DVT. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) is beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important for assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for DVT treatment.

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