Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.

2. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

• A. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns.
• B. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours.
• C. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours.
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is crucial to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours, having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours, and frequent suctioning of the oropharynx are not indicated post-bronchoscopy and may even pose risks to the client's recovery.

3. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

4. A client with a tracheostomy is being cared for by a nurse. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?

• A. Attending a class on tracheostomy care
• B. Verbally explaining all steps in the procedure
• C. Performing the procedure independently
• D. Asking relevant questions about suctioning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the partner can independently perform the suctioning procedure, it demonstrates a readiness for the client's discharge. This indicates that the partner has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to provide safe care for the client at home without the direct supervision of healthcare professionals.

5. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Albuterol (Proventil)
• B. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
• C. Salmeterol (Serevent)
• D. Fluticasone (Flovent)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.

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