ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?
- A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight gain
- D. Productive cough with yellow sputum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.
2. A client who is interested in smoking cessation receives teaching from a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this teaching? (Select ONE that does not apply)
- A. Find an activity that you enjoy and that will keep your hands busy.
- B. Keep healthy snacks on hand to nibble on.
- C. Identify reasons for quitting smoking.
- D. Make a list of reasons for quitting smoking.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When teaching a client interested in smoking cessation, the nurse should include advice to find an activity that keeps hands busy to help distract from smoking urges, keep healthy snacks on hand to manage oral cravings, and drink at least 8 glasses of water daily to aid in flushing out toxins. Making a list of reasons for quitting smoking is also beneficial to reinforce motivation. It is important to avoid punitive measures or punishments for relapses as this can negatively impact the client's progress.
3. A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?
- A. It means it is caused by another disease.
- B. It means it is essential that it be treated.
- C. It is hypertension with no specific cause.
- D. It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.
4. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?
- A. Rifampin
- B. Isoniazid
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Pyrazinamide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.
5. During an asthma attack, a healthcare provider is assessing a client for hypoxemia. Which of the following manifestations should the provider expect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dysphagia
- C. Agitation
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain, causing symptoms like restlessness, confusion, and agitation. These manifestations result from the body's response to low oxygen levels, aiming to increase oxygenation. Nausea, dysphagia, and hypotension are not typical manifestations of hypoxemia during an asthma attack.
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