Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?

• A. Insert an IV line
• B. Count the respiratory rate
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Prepare equipment for intubation

Correct answer: Count the respiratory rate

Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.

3. A client with a pleural effusion is being assessed by a nurse. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find?

• A. Decreased breath sounds on the affected side
• B. Hyperresonance on percussion of the affected side
• C. Increased tactile fremitus on the affected side
• D. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pleural effusion, decreased breath sounds on the affected side are common due to the presence of fluid in the pleural space. Hyperresonance is not expected; dullness on percussion is more likely. Tactile fremitus is typically decreased, not increased, in pleural effusion cases. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side, not toward it, can be seen with large effusions.

4. A client with a mediastinal chest tube is being assessed by a nurse. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (SATA)

• A. Production of pink sputum
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain at insertion site
• D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Immediate intervention is necessary when a client with a mediastinal chest tube exhibits tracheal deviation since it may indicate a tension pneumothorax. This condition requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications. While the production of pink sputum and pain at the insertion site should be monitored and reported, they do not typically require immediate intervention. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues related to the chest tube but is not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.

5. A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Polyuria
• D. Oral candidiasis

Correct answer: D: Oral candidiasis

Rationale: Fluticasone is a corticosteroid often used to manage asthma. One of the common adverse effects associated with inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone is oral candidiasis, also known as thrush. This fungal infection can develop in the mouth and throat due to the steroid's local immunosuppressive effects. Patients should be advised to rinse their mouths after using inhaled corticosteroids to reduce the risk of oral candidiasis. Monitoring for symptoms such as white patches, sore throat, or difficulty swallowing is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly.

Similar Questions