a nurse suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic which of the following should be the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2023 A

1. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.

2. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.

3. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.

4. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

5. A client develops a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels and decrease the workload on the heart. It is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation before other interventions are initiated. Morphine IV, starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's, and initiating cardiac monitoring are important interventions but come after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

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