ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is interested in smoking cessation. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select ONE that does not apply)
- A. Find an activity that you enjoy and will keep your hands busy.
- B. Make a list of reasons you want to stop smoking.
- C. Identify a punishment for yourself in case you backslide.
- D. Drink at least eight glasses of water each day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client on smoking cessation, the nurse should include several strategies. Finding an activity to keep hands busy helps distract from smoking urges. Making a list of reasons to quit smoking reinforces motivation. Identifying a consequence for backsliding can serve as a deterrent. Drinking water is beneficial for overall health but is not directly related to smoking cessation. It's crucial to support the client, encourage healthy habits, and address challenges without punitive measures.
2. A client is 12 hours postoperative and has a chest tube to a disposable water-seal drainage system with suction. The healthcare provider should intervene for which of the following observations?
- A. Constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber
- B. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
- C. Bloody drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Fluid-level fluctuations in the water-seal chamber
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak, which can compromise the system's integrity and affect the client's respiratory status. The other options are expected findings in a client with a chest tube drainage system: constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber indicates proper suction function, bloody drainage in the collection chamber is expected in the immediate postoperative period, and fluid-level fluctuations in the water-seal chamber demonstrate normal drainage and lung re-expansion.
3. A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.
- B. Administer oxygen via face mask.
- C. Prepare to administer a sedative.
- D. Assess for indications of pulmonary embolism.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.
4. While assessing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Lethargy
- B. High-grade fever
- C. Weight gain
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the nurse should expect lethargy as a common finding. Tuberculosis can cause fatigue and weakness due to the body's efforts to fight the infection. High-grade fever is another common symptom of tuberculosis, not weight gain or dry cough. Weight loss is more typical in tuberculosis due to decreased appetite and systemic effects of the infection. A persistent productive cough with sputum is more characteristic of tuberculosis rather than a dry cough.
5. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
- B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
- C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- D. The client has a productive cough.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access