ATI RN TEST BANK

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?

    A. Hypertension

    B. Hypokalemia

    C. Increased urine output

    D. Hyperglycemia

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

  • A. Suppression of beta2 receptors
  • B. Suppression of airway mucus production
  • C. Fortification of bones
  • D. Suppression of candidiasis

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.

A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving gentamicin therapy. Which of the following client assessments is a priority for the healthcare professional to monitor for an adverse effect of this medication?

  • A. Urinary output
  • B. Serum glucose
  • C. Respiratory rate
  • D. Hearing acuity

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hearing acuity. Gentamicin is known to be ototoxic, which means it can cause damage to the auditory system leading to hearing loss. Monitoring hearing acuity is crucial to detect early signs of hearing impairment. Monitoring urinary output (choice A) is important for assessing kidney function but is not directly related to gentamicin's adverse effects. Monitoring serum glucose (choice B) and respiratory rate (choice C) are not specifically associated with gentamicin therapy.

A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?

  • A. Calcium channel blockers
  • B. Potassium-sparing diuretics
  • C. Beta blockers
  • D. Loop diuretics

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

  • A. Constipation
  • B. Facial flushing
  • C. Hypotension
  • D. Jaundice

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.

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