Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
• C. Slow the infusion rate
• D. Administer diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.

2. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Potassium-sparing diuretics
• C. Beta blockers
• D. Loop diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

3. A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacologic action of this medication?

• A. To stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin
• B. To slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine
• C. To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules
• D. To increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), works by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules, which helps to concentrate urine and reduce excessive urination in diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect as vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin. Choice B is incorrect as vasopressin does not affect the absorption of glucose in the intestine. Choice D is incorrect as vasopressin's primary action is not to increase blood pressure, although it can have some vasoconstrictive effects.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for the treatment of anemia. Which of the following instructions should be included in client teaching about this medication?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach to maximize absorption
• B. Notify your provider if your stool becomes dark green
• C. Decrease dietary fiber intake while taking this medication
• D. Take prescribed antacids at the same time as this medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should instruct clients to take iron on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals to maximize absorption. This enhances the medication's effectiveness. Option B is incorrect because dark green stool is a common side effect of iron supplements and does not necessarily indicate a problem. Option C is incorrect as dietary fiber intake does not need to be decreased while taking iron supplements. Option D is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron and should not be taken at the same time.

5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Vomiting
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.

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