a nurse is administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.

3. A client has been prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium supplements and potassium-sparing diuretics due to the risk of hyperkalemia. This interaction can lead to dangerously high levels of potassium in the blood, which can be harmful. Choice B, Ciprofloxacin, is not typically associated with a significant interaction with lisinopril. Choice C, Escitalopram, is an antidepressant and does not have a known significant interaction with lisinopril regarding potassium levels. Choice D, Magnesium supplements, are generally safe to take with lisinopril and do not pose a significant risk of hyperkalemia.

4. A nurse is reviewing a client's new prescription for albuterol. What client education should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Albuterol is a rescue inhaler that should be used during asthma attacks to provide quick relief by opening the airways. Using it daily as a preventive measure is not recommended. Choice A is incorrect because a dry cough is not a common side effect of albuterol. Choice C is incorrect as albuterol does not need to be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because albuterol is not meant to be used daily for asthma prevention.

5. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following client assessments should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial to assess for magnesium toxicity during therapy for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate can lead to neuromuscular blockade, reflected by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. Assessing bowel sounds (choice A) is important for gastrointestinal function but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Oxygen saturation (choice C) is vital for respiratory status but is not specifically linked to magnesium sulfate administration. Fluid balance (choice D) is essential but does not directly correlate with monitoring for complications of magnesium sulfate therapy in the context of preeclampsia.

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