Nursing Elites

1. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation
• B. Facial flushing
• C. Hypotension
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?

• A. INR
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. aPTT
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. aPTT
• B. INR
• C. Serum glucose
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the most reliable test for evaluating the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. INR measures the clotting ability of the blood and helps determine if the dosage of warfarin is within the therapeutic range. Choice A, aPTT, is not typically used to monitor the effects of warfarin. Choice C, Serum glucose, and choice D, Bilirubin, are not relevant to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer ondansetron to a client. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse expect from this medication?

• A. Decreased nausea
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Relief of headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic medication, which means it is used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Therefore, the nurse administering ondansetron should expect a therapeutic effect of decreased nausea. Choice B, increased appetite, is incorrect as ondansetron does not affect appetite. Choice C, increased heart rate, is incorrect as ondansetron does not have a direct effect on heart rate. Choice D, relief of headache, is also incorrect as the primary therapeutic effect of ondansetron is to alleviate nausea and vomiting, not headaches.

5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?

• A. Anorexia and weakness
• B. Hyperactivity and hunger
• C. Tachycardia and increased urination
• D. Polyphagia and polydipsia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anorexia and weakness. These symptoms are early indicators of potential digitalis toxicity. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, which can be a sign of toxicity, and weakness can indicate an issue with digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity and hunger, tachycardia and increased urination, as well as polyphagia and polydipsia are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity.

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