a nurse is caring for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis which of the following client assessments requires immediate
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. Which of the following client assessments requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A platelet count of 95,000/mm³ requires immediate intervention as it is low and increases the risk of bleeding, which is a potential complication of enoxaparin therapy. Low platelet counts can predispose the patient to hemorrhage, and administering anticoagulants like enoxaparin in such cases can further increase the bleeding risk. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during anticoagulant therapy to prevent serious bleeding complications. The other options do not pose immediate risks related to enoxaparin therapy. A slightly elevated blood pressure, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, and pain at the injection site are common findings that may not warrant immediate intervention in this context.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

3. A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asthma. Clients with asthma should avoid Beta2 Blockade agents like propranolol as they can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially worsening asthma symptoms. Choice B, hypertension, is not a contraindication for propranolol; in fact, it is commonly prescribed for hypertension. Choice C, tachydysrhythmias, is often an indication for propranolol due to its antiarrhythmic properties. Choice D, urolithiasis, does not directly impact the use of propranolol.

4. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.

5. A nurse is providing client education on how to administer insulin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering insulin is to rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy, a common complication of insulin therapy. Injecting into the deltoid muscle (Choice A) is not recommended for insulin injections. Massaging the site after injection (Choice C) is not necessary and can potentially increase the risk of lipodystrophy. Using the same site for each injection (Choice D) can lead to localized tissue damage and absorption irregularities, making it an incorrect choice.

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