a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches which of the following instructions should the nurse i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the nitroglycerin transdermal patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime. This schedule helps prevent tolerance to the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be rotated to different sites to prevent skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect as daily rotation is recommended, not daily application to the same site. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should be removed during a bath as it may decrease the efficacy of the medication.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.

3. A client reports that the medication appears different than what they take at home. Which of the following responses should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Contacting the pharmacist is the most appropriate action to ensure the correct medication is being administered. This response addresses the client's concern directly and prioritizes patient safety. The other options do not directly address the issue of the medication discrepancy. Option A focuses on the healthcare provider's discussion, not the medication itself. Option B assumes that the current medication is correct without verification. Option C addresses the reason for the prescription but does not verify the medication's correctness.

4. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

5. A client has a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent an air embolism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent an air embolism in a client with a central venous catheter is to have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed. This maneuver helps to close the airway and prevent air from entering the bloodstream. Keeping the catheter clamped at all times (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to clot formation. Using a non-coring needle (Choice C) is important for accessing the catheter but does not specifically prevent air embolism. Flushing the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice D) helps maintain patency but does not directly prevent air embolism.

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