a nurse is planning care for a client who has heart failure and is at risk for developing pulmonary edema which of the following interventions should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

2. A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to elevate the affected extremity above the level of the heart. This position promotes venous return, reduces swelling, and helps prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. Applying cold compresses (choice A) can vasoconstrict blood vessels, potentially worsening the condition. Massaging the affected extremity (choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications. Keeping the affected extremity dependent when sitting (choice D) can hinder venous return and exacerbate the DVT.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 75 mm/hr indicates inflammation, which is common in rheumatoid arthritis. Elevated ESR levels are often seen in inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Options A, B, and C are within the normal range and are not typically indicative of active inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated ESR level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging compliance through education is crucial in helping patients understand the importance of consistent medication use. By providing education, the patient can make informed decisions about their health and better manage their condition. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but the initial approach should focus on patient education. Documenting the refusal (choice C) is important for legal and medical records but does not address the root cause of non-compliance. Exploring alternative treatment options (choice D) should come after efforts to educate and encourage compliance with the current medication regimen.

5. A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because prednisone is usually prescribed for long-term use. Stopping it abruptly can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to prevent stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is typically tapered off gradually to avoid adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take prednisone with a high-protein snack.

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