a nurse is planning care for a client who has heart failure and is at risk for developing pulmonary edema which of the following interventions should
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

2. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about therapeutic techniques to use when leading a group on a mental health unit. Which of the following group facilitation techniques should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use modeling to help the clients improve their interpersonal skills.' Modeling is an effective therapeutic technique where the leader demonstrates appropriate behaviors for the group to learn from. This technique can help clients improve their interpersonal skills by observing and replicating positive behaviors. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Sharing personal opinions to influence the group's values may not be appropriate as it could hinder the group dynamics and individual autonomy. Comparing accomplishments against a previous group is not a recommended technique as each group is unique, and comparisons may not be beneficial. Yielding in conflicts to maintain group harmony may lead to unresolved issues and hinder the group's progress.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. In clients with cirrhosis, impaired liver function can lead to elevated levels of ammonia in the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by altered mental status. Serum albumin (Choice A) is typically decreased in cirrhosis due to the liver's reduced synthetic function. Bilirubin (Choice C) levels can be elevated in liver disease but may not always be the most specific marker for cirrhosis. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is prolonged in cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors.

5. How should a healthcare provider handle a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing education about the importance of medication adherence is crucial in managing hypertension. By educating the patient about the significance of taking their medication as prescribed, the healthcare provider can help improve compliance and control the patient's blood pressure. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but addressing non-compliance should start with education. Exploring alternative treatments (Choice C) could be considered if the current medication is not suitable, but initial steps should focus on improving adherence. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) may be too delayed if non-compliance is an issue that needs immediate attention.

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