a nurse is planning care for a client who has heart failure and is at risk for developing pulmonary edema which of the following interventions should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Trousseau's sign is a key finding in clients with hypocalcemia, indicating neuromuscular irritability. The other choices are not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of hypercalcemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in hyperactive bowel conditions or diarrhea, not specifically related to hypocalcemia. A weak, thready pulse may indicate cardiovascular issues, such as dehydration, but it is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.

3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps alleviate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome by promoting regular bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who are lactose intolerant. Choice C is incorrect as fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high fructose content, which can be poorly absorbed in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as increasing foods high in gluten may be problematic for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who have gluten sensitivity or celiac disease.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

5. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging compliance through education is crucial in helping patients understand the importance of consistent medication use. By providing education, the patient can make informed decisions about their health and better manage their condition. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but the initial approach should focus on patient education. Documenting the refusal (choice C) is important for legal and medical records but does not address the root cause of non-compliance. Exploring alternative treatment options (choice D) should come after efforts to educate and encourage compliance with the current medication regimen.

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