ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?
- A. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank.
- B. Collecting a urine sample.
- C. Measuring the client's pain level.
- D. Transporting a client to x-ray.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (Choice A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (Choice B) and measuring the client's pain level (Choice C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Flush the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position during feedings.
- C. Administer the feedings over 30 minutes.
- D. Warm the formula before administering it.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position during enteral feedings. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting the downward flow of the feeding and reducing the risk of regurgitation into the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings is not directly related to preventing aspiration. Choice C is incorrect because the rate of administration does not directly impact the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because warming the formula does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.
4. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer IV dextrose
- B. Administer oral glucose
- C. Monitor blood sugar levels
- D. Recheck blood sugar in 15 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia is to administer IV dextrose. This intervention is necessary to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in critical situations. Administering oral glucose may not be effective in severe cases as the patient may be unable to consume it. Monitoring blood sugar levels and rechecking blood sugar in 15 minutes are important steps but not the initial best intervention for severe hypoglycemia.
5. How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?
- A. Immediately give the medication
- B. Assess the reasons for refusal
- C. Document refusal
- D. Explore alternative treatment options
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.
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