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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?
- A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
- B. Opioid, such as morphine
- C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
- D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.
2. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid smoking while taking this medication.
- C. Increase intake of dairy products.
- D. Expect a yellow tinge to the skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease is to avoid smoking while taking the medication. Smoking can interfere with the effectiveness of ranitidine and worsen ulcer symptoms. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to abstain from smoking to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ranitidine with or without food does not significantly affect its effectiveness, there is no specific need to increase intake of dairy products, and expecting a yellow tinge to the skin is not a common side effect associated with Ranitidine.
3. A client with heart failure is receiving instructions about laxative use. The client should be advised to avoid which of the following laxatives?
- A. Sodium phosphate
- B. Psyllium
- C. Bisacodyl
- D. Polyethylene glycol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with heart failure often have sodium restrictions. Sodium phosphate can lead to fluid retention due to sodium absorption, which is harmful for individuals with heart failure. Therefore, it should be avoided in this population to prevent exacerbating fluid overload. Psyllium, Bisacodyl, and Polyethylene glycol are safer options for individuals with heart failure as they do not pose the risk of exacerbating fluid overload through sodium retention.
4. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform first?
- A. Urine output
- B. Bowel sounds
- C. Pain level
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate because respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention to prevent harm. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are important but should come after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable as it is the most critical assessment to prevent serious complications associated with opioid use.
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