a nurse is preparing to administer cyclophosphamide iv to a client who has hodgkins disease which of the following medications should the nurse expect

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
B. Opioid, such as morphine
C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.

2. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?

A. Amnesia
B. Decreased respiratory function
C. Anesthetic
D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.

3. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

A. Be sure to limit your potassium intake while taking the medication.
B. You should check your blood pressure every 8 hours while taking this medication.
C. Your medication dosage will be increased if you develop tachycardia.
D. Change positions slowly when you move from sitting to standing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect of antihypertensive medications. The client should move slowly to a sitting or standing position and should be taught to sit or lie down if lightheadedness or dizziness occurs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is usually not necessary with antihypertensive medications. Checking blood pressure every 8 hours is not a standard recommendation unless specified by a healthcare provider. Increasing medication dosage due to tachycardia is not a typical practice for antihypertensive medications.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

A. Drowsiness
B. Dry mouth
C. Weight gain
D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

5. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

A. H
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drugs with names ending in -pril are classified as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. These medications are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, heart failure, and diabetic kidney disease by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.