a nurse is preparing to administer cyclophosphamide iv to a client who has hodgkins disease which of the following medications should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.

2. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

3. A client has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and impaired kidney function can lead to an increased risk of lactic acidosis, a serious side effect. Therefore, it is important to monitor kidney function regularly while a client is on Metformin. Hemoglobin A1C is used to monitor long-term glucose control, but kidney function is the priority for monitoring Metformin therapy.

4. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital has a long half-life of 4 days, meaning it remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should expect to administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain therapeutic levels and effectiveness. Administering it more than once a day would lead to unnecessary dosing and potential adverse effects as the medication remains active in the body for an extended period.

5. When caring for a client with a wound infection, which action should the nurse perform first in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to obtain a wound specimen for culture before initiating antibiotic therapy. This step is crucial to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection, allowing for targeted antibiotic treatment. Reviewing WBC laboratory findings and applying a wound dressing are important steps, but obtaining a wound specimen for culture takes precedence as it guides appropriate antibiotic therapy by identifying the causative organism.

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