Nursing Elites

1. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.

2. A client has a prescription for Erythromycin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Expect your urine to turn dark yellow.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
• D. Report persistent diarrhea to your provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report persistent diarrhea to your provider.' Erythromycin is known to cause Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea, which can be severe. Instructing the client to report any persistent diarrhea to their healthcare provider promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Erythromycin with food is generally recommended to reduce stomach upset, but it is not the most critical instruction. Expecting urine to turn dark yellow is not a common side effect of Erythromycin. Taking Erythromycin with a full glass of milk is not necessary and may not be appropriate for all clients, especially those with lactose intolerance or dairy allergies.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can reduce saliva production, leading to dry mouth. To alleviate this symptom, the client should be advised to increase fluid intake or use sugar-free gum or candy. Monitoring for dry mouth is important to prevent complications such as oral health issues. Drowsiness, weight gain, and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine but are less common compared to dry mouth. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for dry mouth as it's a more prevalent adverse effect associated with this medication.

4. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Contact provider if heart rate is less than 60/min.
• B. Check pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiply the result by 2.
• C. Increase intake of sodium.
• D. Take with food if nausea occurs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Digoxin for heart failure is to contact the provider if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Digoxin can affect heart rate, and a heart rate below 60/min may indicate toxicity, requiring prompt medical attention. Checking the pulse rate accurately and seeking medical advice are essential components of safe medication management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is related to checking the pulse rate but does not address the critical action of contacting the provider if it is below 60/min. Increasing intake of sodium (Choice C) is inappropriate as high sodium levels can worsen heart failure. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs (Choice D) does not address a critical aspect of Digoxin administration related to heart rate monitoring.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has Hypothyroidism and a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?

• A. The client will start at a high dose, and the dose will be tapered as needed.
• B. The client will remain on the initial dosage during the course of treatment.
• C. The client's dosage will be adjusted daily based on blood levels.
• D. The client will start on a low dose, which will be gradually increased.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be initiated at a low dose and titrated gradually over several weeks to achieve therapeutic levels. This approach helps to minimize the risk of adverse effects, particularly in older adult clients who may be more sensitive to medication changes. Starting at a low dose allows for close monitoring of the client's response and adjustment of the dosage as needed to optimize treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because starting at a high dose can increase the risk of adverse effects and is not the recommended approach. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining the initial dosage throughout the treatment may not achieve optimal therapeutic levels. Choice C is incorrect because adjusting the dosage daily based on blood levels is not the standard practice for initiating Levothyroxine treatment.

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