ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Fomepizole
- B. Naloxone
- C. Phytonadione
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.
2. The nurse is planning care for a post-operative client after a total hip arthroplasty. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Observe client for changes in mental status
- B. Use aseptic technique for wound care and emptying of drains
- C. Keep the client’s heels off the bed
- D. Perform neurovascular assessments per protocol
Correct answer: Perform neurovascular assessments per protocol
Rationale:
3. Which of the following best describes the concept of total quality management (TQM)?
- A. Top-down management
- B. Employee-centered approach
- C. Continuous improvement
- D. Quality control
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continuous improvement. Total quality management (TQM) focuses on continuously improving all aspects of healthcare delivery to enhance patient care, safety, and overall quality. Choice A, 'Top-down management,' does not capture the essence of TQM, which involves involvement at all levels of an organization. Choice B, 'Employee-centered approach,' while important, is not the defining characteristic of TQM. Choice D, 'Quality control,' is a component of TQM but does not fully encompass its comprehensive approach to quality improvement.
4. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?
- A. Regular Check-ups
- B. Regular Screening
- C. Self-Medication
- D. Immunization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.
5. The third stage of labor lasts about __________.
- A. 5 to 10 minutes
- B. 20 to 50 minutes
- C. 4 to 6 hours
- D. 12 to 14 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 5 to 10 minutes. The third stage of labor typically lasts about 5 to 10 minutes. This stage begins after the baby is born and ends when the placenta is delivered. It is the shortest stage of labor compared to the first and second stages. Choice B, 20 to 50 minutes, is incorrect as it is too long for the duration of the third stage. Choice C, 4 to 6 hours, and Choice D, 12 to 14 hours, are also incorrect as they are significantly longer than the actual duration of the third stage of labor.
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