ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for radioactive iodine to treat Hyperthyroidism. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect a metallic taste in the mouth.
- B. Avoid contact with pregnant women for 1 week.
- C. Administer iodine solution using a straw.
- D. Take thyroid replacement medication for 3 weeks after treatment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client undergoes radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism, they can emit radiation for a short time. To prevent radiation exposure to others, especially pregnant women, infants, and small children, clients should avoid close contact for about 1 week following therapy. This precaution is essential to protect vulnerable individuals from potential harm. Choice A is incorrect because a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of radioactive iodine treatment. Choice C is incorrect because administering iodine solution using a straw is not a standard practice in this treatment. Choice D is incorrect because taking thyroid replacement medication for 3 weeks after treatment is not a typical instruction associated with radioactive iodine therapy for hyperthyroidism.
2. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?
- A. 1000
- B. 1030
- C. 1100
- D. 1130
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.
3. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.
- A. H
- B. ACE inhibitor
- C. Antifungal
- D. Beta agonist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Drugs with names ending in -pril are classified as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. These medications are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, heart failure, and diabetic kidney disease by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
4. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
- C. Take this medication as needed for anxiety.
- D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client about Buspirone, the nurse should highlight that this medication has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the safety profile of Buspirone compared to other medications used for anxiety.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 200 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 100 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. The correct calculation is: 100 mL (volume) / 0.5 hr (time) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 200 mL/hr. Choice B (150 mL/hr), C (100 mL/hr), and D (250 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated flow rate needed for the administration of clindamycin.
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