Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Use an electric shaver to remove excess hair on the extremity.
• B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
• C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
• D. Instruct the client to keep the extremity still during the procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Distending the veins using a blood pressure cuff is essential for facilitating visualization and access to the veins during IV catheter insertion. This technique helps healthcare professionals identify suitable veins, reducing the risk of complications like infiltration or hematoma formation. Using an electric shaver to remove hair on the extremity (Choice A) may increase the risk of micro-cuts and introduce infection. Selecting the antecubital area (Choice B) may not always be appropriate, as vein condition and accessibility vary among older adult clients. Instructing the client to keep the extremity still (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to preparing for IV therapy.

2. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

3. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take furosemide in the morning.
• B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
• C. Avoid foods that are high in magnesium.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Eat a diet high in potassium.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Instructing the client to eat a diet high in potassium can help counteract the potassium-wasting effect of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide can be taken at different times of the day based on individual needs. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a general instruction for all clients taking furosemide.

4. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Expect decreased urination within the first few days.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion. Therefore, instructing the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent electrolyte imbalances and support overall health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning is not directly related to the medication's mechanism of action. Expecting decreased urination within the first few days is not accurate as the medication is a diuretic that typically increases urination. Also, advising the client to avoid foods high in potassium would not be suitable, as increasing potassium-rich foods is necessary to counteract potential potassium depletion caused by Hydrochlorothiazide.

5. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and has muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers, such as the one the client received. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby enhancing neuromuscular transmission and reversing muscle weakness caused by the neuromuscular blocking agent.

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