ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a client with a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to maintain the sterile field?
- A. Open sterile packages using the flap closest to your body first.
- B. Don sterile gloves before opening the sterile package.
- C. Avoid reaching over the sterile field.
- D. Place sterile items at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to maintain a sterile field is to avoid reaching over it. This prevents contamination of the sterile environment by reducing the risk of unintentionally dropping microorganisms from non-sterile areas onto the sterile field. Opening sterile packages using the flap closest to your body first (choice A) is a good practice but not directly related to maintaining the sterile field. Donning sterile gloves before opening the sterile package (choice B) is crucial for maintaining sterility but not specific to maintaining the sterile field. Placing sterile items at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field (choice D) is important to prevent accidental contamination, but it is not the primary action to maintain the sterile field.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.
3. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Apply compression stockings
- C. Encourage ambulation
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected DVT because it helps prevent further clot formation and complications. Applying compression stockings (choice B) can be a preventive measure but is not the primary intervention for treating DVT. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) is beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important for assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for DVT treatment.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings indicates the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all lung fields.
- B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
- C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
- D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a client with a pulmonary embolism, improvement in anxiety levels can indicate the effectiveness of treatment as it suggests better oxygenation and perfusion. Choices A, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate worsening of the condition, diminished breath sounds suggest impaired lung function, and ABG results with a pH of 7.48, PaO2 of 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 47 mm Hg do not specifically indicate treatment effectiveness for a pulmonary embolism.
5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply hydrocolloid dressing
- B. Provide wound debridement
- C. Change the dressing daily
- D. Elevate the affected area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Stage 3 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue, which requires a moist environment for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help maintain a moist wound environment, promote healing, and provide protection. Providing wound debridement may be necessary but is not the priority intervention at this stage. Changing the dressing daily is important for wound care but not the priority over creating an optimal healing environment. Elevating the affected area can help with circulation and reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention for a stage 3 pressure ulcer.
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