ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a client with a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to maintain the sterile field?
- A. Open sterile packages using the flap closest to your body first.
- B. Don sterile gloves before opening the sterile package.
- C. Avoid reaching over the sterile field.
- D. Place sterile items at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to maintain a sterile field is to avoid reaching over it. This prevents contamination of the sterile environment by reducing the risk of unintentionally dropping microorganisms from non-sterile areas onto the sterile field. Opening sterile packages using the flap closest to your body first (choice A) is a good practice but not directly related to maintaining the sterile field. Donning sterile gloves before opening the sterile package (choice B) is crucial for maintaining sterility but not specific to maintaining the sterile field. Placing sterile items at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field (choice D) is important to prevent accidental contamination, but it is not the primary action to maintain the sterile field.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. Thrombophlebitis.
- C. Diverticulosis.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications such as thromboembolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications for oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect the metabolism of contraceptives but does not contraindicate their use. Diverticulosis and hypocalcemia do not directly impact the safety or effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 100 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
4. A client with hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will choose processed meats for meals.
- B. I will eat canned vegetables to reduce my sodium intake.
- C. I will eat fresh fruits and vegetables each day.
- D. I will increase my intake of canned soups.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Choosing fresh fruits and vegetables is a healthy choice for someone with hypertension as they are low in sodium and high in nutrients. Processed meats (A) are high in sodium and unhealthy fats, which can worsen hypertension. Canned vegetables (B) often have added sodium, so fresh is a better choice. Canned soups (D) are typically high in sodium and should be limited in a hypertensive diet.
5. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.
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