ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Ammonia 75 mcg/dL
- B. Sodium 142 mEq/L
- C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- D. Bilirubin 2.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Almonds
- B. Cheddar cheese
- C. Chicken breast
- D. Pasta
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent choice for a high-protein diet as it is a lean source of protein. Almonds, while a good source of protein, also contain high amounts of fat. Cheddar cheese is high in protein but also high in saturated fat. Pasta is not a significant source of protein compared to chicken breast.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
- B. Platelet count 148,000/mm3
- C. Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
- D. Blood glucose 80 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL is below the normal range for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and should be reported to the provider.
4. If a nurse administers an incorrect dose of medication, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
- A. Time the medication was given
- B. The client's response to the medication
- C. The dose that was administered
- D. Reason for the error
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to document the time the medication was given. This is essential for understanding the sequence of events surrounding the medication error. While documenting the client's response to the medication (Choice B) is important for assessing any effects, the immediate concern should be to establish a clear timeline by documenting the time of administration. Recording the dose administered (Choice C) is also important, but in the context of understanding the incident, the time factor takes precedence. The reason for the error (Choice D) should be included in the incident report but may not be the first priority when documenting in the client's medical record.
5. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- B. Check the client's urinary output.
- C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- D. Assess the client's pain level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.
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