a nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia which action should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Avoid foods that are high in fat." Clients with IBS should avoid foods high in fat as they can exacerbate symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. High-fiber foods, choice A, can sometimes worsen symptoms in individuals with IBS. Increasing intake of dairy products, choice C, may also worsen symptoms for some individuals with IBS, especially if they are lactose intolerant. Drinking carbonated beverages, choice D, can contribute to bloating and gas, making symptoms worse for individuals with IBS.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.

4. A nurse is caring for a 1-day-old newborn who has jaundice and is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is important to prevent irritation during phototherapy, as exposure to light can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Feeding the infant glucose water is unnecessary and not indicated for jaundice treatment. Keeping the infant's head uncovered allows the light to reach the skin effectively. Applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and is not recommended.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting a sudden weight gain of 2 pounds in one day is crucial in managing heart failure because it can indicate fluid retention, a common symptom in heart failure. Option A is incorrect as weighing oneself once a week may not provide timely information about fluid retention. Option B is incorrect because fluid intake restriction is individualized and generally involves more specific guidance. Option D is incorrect as protein intake is important but reducing it solely to avoid fluid retention is not the primary focus in heart failure management.

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