a nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia which action should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.

2. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures accurate readings. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (Choice A) is not necessary for pulse oximetry monitoring. Heating the skin before placing the probe (Choice C) can potentially cause burns in infants. Placing a sensor on the index finger (Choice D) is not the standard practice for continuous pulse oximetry in infants.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following tests is an indicator of long-term blood glucose control?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). HbA1c provides a measure of long-term blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test reflects the average blood glucose levels during this period, making it a valuable tool in managing diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of long-term blood glucose control. Fasting blood glucose measures the current glucose level after a period of not eating, random blood glucose provides a snapshot of the current glucose level, and postprandial blood glucose measures the glucose level after a meal.

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