ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.
2. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?
- A. Infective endocarditis
- B. Coronary artery disease
- C. Mitral valve stenosis
- D. Aortic regurgitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of an infant who is receiving treatment for severe dehydration. The professional should identify which of the following laboratory values indicates effectiveness of the current treatment?
- A. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- C. Urine specific gravity 1.035
- D. BUN 25 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A sodium level of 140 mEq/L within the expected reference range indicates effective treatment for dehydration. In dehydration, sodium levels are often elevated, so a normal sodium level suggests that the treatment is helping to restore the electrolyte balance in the infant's body.
4. A nurse receives a report from assistive personnel that a client's BP is 160/95. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Notify the provider
- B. Recheck the blood pressure
- C. Administer antihypertensive medication
- D. Document the blood pressure in the chart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when receiving a report of a client's blood pressure reading of 160/95 is to recheck the blood pressure. Rechecking the blood pressure ensures the accuracy of the reading before making any further decisions or interventions. Notifying the provider (Choice A) can be considered after confirming the blood pressure reading. Administering antihypertensive medication (Choice C) should not be done based solely on one reading without verification. Documenting the blood pressure in the chart (Choice D) should also come after confirming the accuracy of the reading to avoid recording incorrect information.
5. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to a client with a heart rate of 50 bpm. What is the priority action?
- A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
- C. Decrease the dose of the beta blocker.
- D. Monitor the client’s heart rate and reassess in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 50 bpm is already low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing adverse effects like bradycardia or heart block. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the low heart rate. Decreasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) may not be sufficient to address the potential harm. Monitoring the client’s heart rate and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) may delay necessary interventions if the heart rate drops further. Therefore, the priority is to hold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.
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