Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

• A. Swelling of the ankles.
• B. Increased urination.
• C. Persistent cough.
• D. Dark-colored urine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

2. What is the correct medical term used to describe impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries?

• A. Myocardial infarction
• B. Angina pectoris
• C. Cerebrovascular accident
• D. Coronary heart disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct medical term for impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries is Coronary heart disease. This condition is characterized by a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Myocardial infarction (choice A) refers to a heart attack, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the heart is blocked. Angina pectoris (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Cerebrovascular accident (choice C) is the medical term for a stroke, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted.

3. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at night.
• C. Cover the patch with a heating pad.
• D. Apply the patch to a hairless area of skin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the Nitroglycerin transdermal patch to a hairless area of skin. This ensures proper absorption of the medication. It is important to rotate the application site daily to prevent skin irritation and tolerance development. Applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to decreased efficacy and potential skin reactions. Removing the patch at night is not necessary as the patches are usually worn continuously to provide constant medication delivery. Covering the patch with a heating pad can increase the absorption of the medication and lead to an overdose, which is not recommended.

4. When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer a stool softener
• B. Decrease fluid intake following infusion
• C. Infuse Acyclovir over 1 hr
• D. Monitor for hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, the nurse should infuse the medication over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects such as renal damage. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended infusion rate to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect as stool softeners are not indicated in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because fluid intake should be maintained or increased to prevent dehydration and support kidney function. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for hypotension is not specifically related to the administration of IV Acyclovir in Varicella.

5. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.

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