Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Anxiety
• C. Sedation
• D. Palpitations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can cause sedation, so the client should be advised to avoid activities that require alertness. Diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated adverse effects of Dextromethorphan.

2. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so monitoring the client's platelet count is crucial to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate an increased risk of bleeding, a known adverse effect of Clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel and would not provide relevant information regarding the medication's impact on platelet function.

3. When teaching a client about a new prescription for Celecoxib, which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that taking Celecoxib increases the risk of a myocardial infarction due to its suppression of vasodilation. Celecoxib belongs to the class of NSAIDs known to have cardiovascular risks, including an increased risk of heart attacks. Choice B is incorrect because Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke. Choice C is incorrect because Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 rather than COX-1. Choice D is incorrect because Celecoxib does not increase platelet aggregation; in fact, it inhibits platelet aggregation.

4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Methotrexate?

• A. Sarcomas
• B. Leukemias
• C. Ectopic pregnancy
• D. Rheumatic fever

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Methotrexate is not typically used to treat rheumatic fever, which is more commonly managed with antibiotics to eradicate the underlying infection. Methotrexate is commonly used in the treatment of conditions like sarcomas, leukemias, and ectopic pregnancies due to its anti-inflammatory and anti-cancer properties.

5. When starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect of trastuzumab. It is crucial for the client to report any breathing difficulties promptly to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not indicative of serious adverse effects that require immediate attention.

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