a nurse is caring for a client who has hiv 1 infection and is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy the nurse should monitor the cli
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.

2. A client is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking aspirin along with Warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding. Clients should be advised to avoid medications that increase the risk of bleeding when taking Warfarin to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements indicating good understanding of Warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in Vitamin K, using an electric razor to prevent cuts that can lead to bleeding, and regular blood testing to monitor Warfarin levels are all important aspects of managing Warfarin therapy.

3. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

4. During discharge instructions, a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin should be advised to take which of the following actions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin is to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that affects the gums. By maintaining good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing, the client can help minimize the risk of developing this side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications affected by grapefruit juice metabolism, taking medication on an empty stomach is not specifically indicated for Phenytoin, and increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly related to the side effects or administration of Phenytoin.

5. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors are commonly used in the treatment of hypertension, heart failure, and diabetic nephropathy due to their ability to reduce blood pressure, improve heart function, and protect the kidneys. However, they are not indicated for hypotension as they can further lower blood pressure, worsening the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A, hypertension, is correct as ACE inhibitors are a first-line treatment for this condition. Choice B, heart failure, is also correct as ACE inhibitors help improve heart function in patients with heart failure. Choice D, diabetic nephropathy, is correct as ACE inhibitors can slow the progression of kidney damage in diabetic patients.

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