a nurse is caring for a client who has hiv 1 infection and is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy the nurse should monitor the cli
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.

2. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia when receiving leuprolide as it can cause decreased testosterone levels, leading to the development of gynecomastia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because leuprolide actually decreases testosterone levels, which would not result in increased testosterone levels or libido. Leuprolide is not associated with hypoglycemia, so monitoring for this is unnecessary in a client receiving this medication.

3. A client is receiving discharge instructions for long-term use of Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because long-term use of Prednisone can lead to weight gain, necessitating regular weight monitoring by the healthcare provider to manage any potential complications. Prednisone often causes fluid retention, leading to weight gain, hence the need for weight monitoring. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because swelling is not a typical reason to stop Prednisone, taking it on an empty stomach is not usually required, and Prednisone commonly increases appetite rather than decreases it.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, which leads to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent potential complications associated with hyperkalemia. The other options, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and hypocalcemia, are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to occur as adverse effects.

5. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Administration of flumazenil is indicated in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity to rapidly reverse the central nervous system depression caused by these drugs. It is important to note that flumazenil should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures or those who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms or seizures.

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