Nursing Elites

1. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmia
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Renal failure
• D. Aplastic anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.

2. A patient is prescribed warfarin therapy for an artificial heart valve. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for a therapeutic effect of warfarin?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor Prothrombin time (PT) when a patient is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and PT is used to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication. Hemoglobin (Choice A) is not directly affected by warfarin therapy and does not reflect its therapeutic effect. Bleeding time (Choice C) measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a standardized cut and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

3. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.

4. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid drinking coffee while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Stop the medication if you develop a headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ranitidine is to take the medication at bedtime. Ranitidine is best taken at bedtime as it helps decrease the production of stomach acid during the night, providing optimal relief for conditions like heartburn or acid indigestion.

5. A client has a prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Expect your urine to turn orange.
• D. Avoid prolonged sunlight exposure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased excretion of potassium in the urine. To counteract this effect and maintain electrolyte balance, the client should be advised to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. This instruction helps prevent potential complications associated with low potassium levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide in the morning does not affect its effectiveness; urine turning orange is not an expected side effect of Furosemide; and avoiding prolonged sunlight exposure is not directly related to Furosemide use.

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