ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Cardiac dysrhythmia
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Renal failure
- D. Aplastic anemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.
2. A client with Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is receiving Streptomycin IM among other antibiotics. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Extremity paresthesias
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Severe constipation
- D. Complex partial seizures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is extremity paresthesias. Streptomycin, used to treat infections like Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis, can cause paresthesias in the hands and feet as an adverse effect. Monitoring for this symptom is vital to detect and manage it promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention, severe constipation, and complex partial seizures are not commonly associated adverse effects of Streptomycin.
3. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ringing in the ears
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.
4. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bone pain
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is starting therapy with filgrastim, monitoring for bone pain is essential. Filgrastim can lead to increased bone marrow activity, resulting in bone pain as a common adverse effect. Instructing the client to monitor and report any bone pain promptly can help in managing this side effect effectively.
5. Which drug class has been found to decrease mortality if given within 8 hours of an MI due to a decrease in cardiac workload?
- A. Antiplatelets
- B. Beta-adrenergic blockers
- C. ACE inhibitors
- D. Calcium channel blockers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers have been shown to decrease mortality when administered within 8 hours of a myocardial infarction (MI). They do so by reducing cardiac workload, which helps improve outcomes post-MI. These drugs work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand, thereby protecting the heart muscle from further damage. This makes them a crucial part of the treatment regimen for acute coronary syndromes like MI.
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