ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Increased risk of bleeding
- C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
- D. Increased risk of cardiac complications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.
2. What symptoms are expected in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized swelling and numbness
- C. Fever and infection
- D. Weakness and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the key symptoms include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate reduced circulation in the affected compartment. Choice B is incorrect as localized swelling and numbness are not typically associated with compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as fever and infection are not primary symptoms of compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as weakness and fatigue are not typically seen in compartment syndrome.
3. What is the initial nursing action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Check the patient's urine output
- C. Check cardiac enzymes
- D. Obtain IV access
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority initial action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (choice B) and cardiac enzymes (choice C) are important assessments but are not the first priority when managing acute chest pain. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is essential for administering medications and fluids, but administering sublingual nitroglycerin takes precedence in the initial management of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.
4. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on ECG
- B. Prominent U waves on ECG
- C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
- D. ST elevation on ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.
5. What should be the first medication given for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
- C. Methylprednisolone IV
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it works as a bronchodilator, helping to relieve the symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath quickly. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than for immediate relief. Methylprednisolone IV (choice C) and Aminophylline 500 mg IV (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for wheezing due to an allergic reaction.
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