what is the primary concern in a patient with a low cd4 t cell count in hiv
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

2. What are the expected findings in a patient with a thrombotic stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. In a thrombotic stroke, a blood clot forms in an artery supplying blood to the brain, leading to reduced blood flow to a specific area of the brain. This results in a gradual onset of neurological deficits, such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache and vomiting, and loss of sensation in the affected limb are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, not specifically thrombotic strokes. Thrombotic strokes typically present with gradual symptoms due to the gradual blockage of blood flow, leading to a progressive neurological deficit.

3. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart. This intervention is crucial in managing acute coronary syndrome and should be given promptly. Getting IV access may be necessary, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence to alleviate symptoms and prevent further heart damage. Auscultating heart sounds and administering aspirin are important aspects of the assessment and treatment plan, but they are not the priority interventions in the acute phase of suspected acute coronary syndrome.

5. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

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