Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Increased risk of bleeding
• C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
• D. Increased risk of cardiac complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

2. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST depression
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.

3. What are the early symptoms of compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Localized redness and swelling
• C. Fever and swelling
• D. Numbness and tingling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness.' Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to reduced blood flow and potential tissue damage. Early symptoms include unrelieved pain (out of proportion to the injury), pallor (pale skin color), and pulselessness (decreased or absent pulses). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the classic early symptoms of compartment syndrome.

4. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?

• A. Low sodium diet
• B. Potassium restricted diet
• C. High phosphorus diet
• D. High protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.

5. When providing discharge teaching to a patient who underwent cataract surgery, what should the patient avoid?

• A. Avoid NSAIDs
• B. Avoid bright lights
• C. Avoid alcohol
• D. Avoid phosphorus-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid NSAIDs. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can increase the risk of bleeding after cataract surgery due to their anticoagulant properties. Bright lights (choice B) are not contraindicated post-cataract surgery unless the patient experiences discomfort or sensitivity. Alcohol consumption (choice C) is generally not restricted after cataract surgery, but moderation is recommended. Phosphorus-rich foods (choice D) are not directly related to cataract surgery postoperative care.

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