ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Increase protein intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.
2. Carmen discovers that the DASH diet contains more fiber and ____ compared to that of the typical American diet.
- A. vitamin C
- B. iron
- C. potassium
- D. sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'potassium.' The DASH diet is rich in potassium, which helps lower blood pressure, making it more effective than the typical American diet, which is often low in this essential mineral. Choice A, 'vitamin C,' is incorrect as the comparison is about fiber and another nutrient, not vitamin C. Choice B, 'iron,' is incorrect as the discussion is about fiber and a mineral that helps lower blood pressure, not iron. Choice D, 'sodium,' is incorrect as the DASH diet actually focuses on reducing sodium intake for better blood pressure control, so it wouldn't be a nutrient found in higher amounts compared to the typical American diet.
3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.
4. What condition is often associated with severe diarrhea?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Severe diarrhea can lead to a loss of bicarbonate, resulting in metabolic acidosis. This is a common complication of prolonged or severe diarrhea, especially in children.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has experienced a left-hemispheric stroke. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Impulse control difficulty
- B. Poor judgement
- C. Inability to recognize familiar objects
- D. Loss of depth perception
Correct answer: Inability to recognize familiar objects
Rationale: Patients who have experienced a left-hemispheric stroke may exhibit symptoms of agnosia, which is the inability to recognize familiar objects or people. This occurs due to damage to the right hemisphere of the brain, which is responsible for visual and spatial perception. Impulse control difficulty, poor judgment, and loss of depth perception are not typically associated with left-hemispheric strokes.
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