what dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre dialysis end stage kidney disease
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.

2. A patient with GERD is being taught by a nurse. What should the patient avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods as they can trigger reflux. Choice B ('Increase water intake during meals') is not recommended for GERD patients as it can worsen symptoms by distending the stomach. Choice C ('Eat frequent small meals') is beneficial for GERD patients to prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice D ('Consume more spicy foods') is incorrect as spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

4. What should the nurse do when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the nurse should tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This action can often resolve an air leak causing the continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing it would not address the underlying issue of an air leak and may lead to complications. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may result in the deterioration of the patient's condition.

5. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.

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