ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath.
- B. A client who is postoperative and has abdominal distention.
- C. A client who is receiving IV fluids and has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
- D. A client who has cancer and has been receiving radiation therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.
2. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?
- A. Encourage compliance through education
- B. Contact the healthcare provider
- C. Document the refusal
- D. Explore alternative treatment options
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging compliance through education is crucial in helping patients understand the importance of consistent medication use. By providing education, the patient can make informed decisions about their health and better manage their condition. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but the initial approach should focus on patient education. Documenting the refusal (choice C) is important for legal and medical records but does not address the root cause of non-compliance. Exploring alternative treatment options (choice D) should come after efforts to educate and encourage compliance with the current medication regimen.
3. What is the best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Monitor blood pressure
- D. Monitor edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics is to monitor daily weight. Daily weighing is a precise way to assess changes in fluid status as it reflects variations in total body water. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide as accurate a measurement as daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is essential but does not directly measure fluid balance. Monitoring edema (choice D) is helpful to assess fluid status visually but may not be as sensitive as daily weight measurements in detecting subtle changes in fluid balance.
4. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- B. Check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours.
- C. Administer the feeding at room temperature.
- D. Flush the feeding tube with 20 mL of water every 8 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.
5. A client is 24 hr postoperative following an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. Which of the following findings is a priority to report?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on dressing
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Absent bowel sounds
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is indicative of decreased kidney function, potentially due to inadequate perfusion or other complications post-aneurysm resection. This finding requires immediate reporting to prevent further complications such as acute kidney injury. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, abdominal distention, and absent bowel sounds are also important postoperative assessments but are not as critical as impaired kidney function in this scenario.
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