a nurse is planning care for a group of clients which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

5. A patient is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should instruct the patient to wear loose clothing over the radiation site. This helps prevent skin irritation and promotes healing by reducing friction and irritation on the treated area.\nChoice A is incorrect because applying a heating pad can further irritate the skin that is already sensitive due to radiation therapy.\nChoice B is incorrect because scented lotions may contain ingredients that could further irritate the skin.\nChoice C is incorrect because covering the radiation site with a bandage can trap moisture and lead to skin breakdown, increasing the risk of infection.

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