a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and is experiencing dumping syndrome which of the following actions
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and is experiencing dumping syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach into the small intestine. Symptoms can include abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and sweating. To manage dumping syndrome in a client receiving enteral tube feedings, the nurse should decrease the rate of the feedings. This intervention helps slow down the movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the symptoms. Administering a refrigerated feeding (choice A) or increasing the amount of water used to flush the tubing (choice B) are not appropriate actions for addressing dumping syndrome. Instructing the client to move onto their right side (choice D) is not a relevant intervention for managing dumping syndrome in this scenario.

2. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, which can be a side effect of methotrexate and should be reported. Elevated white blood cell count (choice A), platelet count (choice B), or normal hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is frequently agitated is to use a calm and reassuring approach when speaking to them. This approach helps reduce agitation and create a more therapeutic environment. Offering several choices may overwhelm the client and increase agitation, making choice A incorrect. Confronting the client can escalate the situation and worsen agitation, making choice B inappropriate. While encouraging stimulating activities is beneficial, it may not be the most effective intervention for immediate agitation management, making choice D less priority compared to using a calm and reassuring approach.

4. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine output of 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of dehydration or kidney impairment postoperatively. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within normal parameters for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not raise immediate concerns. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing is an expected finding in the early postoperative period, a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is also within normal limits.

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