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ATI Fundamentals
1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?
- A. Have suction equipment available for use
- B. Feed the client thickened liquids
- C. Place food on the unaffected side of the client's mouth
- D. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.
2. While reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients, which infection should the nurse in a provider's office report?
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Chlamydia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires notification and intervention due to its public health implications and potential complications if left untreated. Reporting Chlamydia is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment, prevent further spread of the infection, and provide necessary counseling to affected individuals. While other infections like herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are also significant, Chlamydia is particularly important to report in this context.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
4. A public health nurse is managing several projects for the community. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as a primary prevention strategy?
- A. Teaching parenting skills to expectant mothers and their partners.
- B. Conducting mental health screenings at the local community center
- C. Referring clients with obesity to community exercise programs
- D. Providing crisis intervention through a mobile counseling unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is teaching parenting skills to expectant mothers and their partners. This intervention is a primary prevention strategy aimed at educating individuals before a problem or condition develops. By teaching parenting skills, the nurse is promoting healthy behaviors and relationships, which can prevent future issues. The other options involve secondary or tertiary prevention strategies by identifying and treating existing conditions or providing interventions after a problem has occurred.
5. If a patient asks the nurse for her opinion about a particular physician and the nurse replies that the physician is incompetent, the nurse could be held liable for:
- A. Slander
- B. Libel
- C. Assault
- D. Respondent superior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, if the nurse makes a false verbal statement about the physician being incompetent, it is considered slander. Slander is the act of making defamatory spoken statements or gestures. Libel, on the other hand, refers to defamatory statements that are written or published. Assault involves the threat of physical harm, and respondent superior is a legal doctrine holding an employer responsible for the actions of an employee in the course of employment.
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