Nursing Elites

1. Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the following except:

• A. A semiconscious or overfatigued patient
• B. A disoriented or confused patient
• C. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home
• D. A patient demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with impaired awareness may exhibit symptoms such as being semiconscious, overfatigued, disoriented, confused, or demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home does not necessarily indicate impaired awareness, as this could be due to physical limitations or lack of support, rather than a cognitive deficit.

2. When administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client, for which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L.
• B. Apical pulse 58/min
• C. Digoxin level 1 ng/mL
• D. Constipation for 2 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring the digoxin level is crucial as it helps determine the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity. A digoxin level of 1 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range. However, levels above this range can lead to toxicity, causing adverse effects like nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should report a digoxin level of 1 ng/mL to the provider for further evaluation and potential dose adjustment.

3. Which of the following patients is at greater risk for contracting an infection?

• A. A patient with leukopenia
• B. A patient receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
• C. A postoperative patient who has undergone orthopedic surgery
• D. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Leukopenia, characterized by low white blood cell count, significantly reduces the body's ability to fight infections. Patients with leukopenia are at a higher risk of contracting infections due to compromised immune defenses.

4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

5. Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is false?

• A. There are contraindications for this test
• B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons above the waist
• C. A signed consent is not required
• D. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because there are contraindications for chest X-rays, such as pregnancy or concerns about radiation exposure. Patients may need to remove jewelry and metallic objects to prevent interference with the imaging. While a signed consent is typically not required for a routine chest X-ray, there are specific situations where consent may be necessary. It is essential for patients to follow fasting instructions before certain types of chest X-rays to obtain accurate results.

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