Nursing Elites

1. If a patient's blood pressure is 150/96, what is his pulse pressure?

• A. 54
• B. 96
• C. 150
• D. 246

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. In this case, the systolic pressure is 150 and the diastolic pressure is 96. Therefore, the pulse pressure is 150 - 96 = 54. Pulse pressure represents the force generated by the heart with each contraction and is an important indicator of cardiovascular health.

2. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

3. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Notify the provider.
• B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy.
• D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.

4. A client is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
• B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
• C. Dehydration is associated with gastroesophageal reflux.
• D. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dehydration can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and cause uterine irritability, potentially leading to preterm contractions. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of adequate hydration to reduce the risk of preterm labor. The statement 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor' directly addresses the client's condition and provides relevant information for their understanding and management of the situation.

5. A client has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should be made?

• A. Coffee with creamer
• B. Lettuce with sliced avocados
• C. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chronic pancreatitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the pancreas. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice is a suitable option as it is low in fat. Coffee with creamer and lettuce with sliced avocados are not recommended for individuals with chronic pancreatitis due to their fat content. Choosing options high in fat can exacerbate symptoms and increase the workload on the pancreas, worsening the condition.

Similar Questions