ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is receiving a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which client information should the healthcare professional report?
- A. Low-grade fever.
- B. Shortness of breath.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. High platelet count.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a postoperative client, a low-grade fever can be an early sign of infection, which is crucial to report to the healthcare team for timely intervention. Shortness of breath and decreased urine output are also important to monitor, but in the context of postoperative care, infection is a more immediate concern. A high platelet count is not typically a priority in the immediate postoperative period.
2. What is the most important nursing action for a patient post-surgery?
- A. Monitor vital signs
- B. Monitor the surgical site
- C. Check blood pressure
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial nursing action for a patient post-surgery is to monitor vital signs. Monitoring vital signs helps in detecting early signs of complications such as hemorrhage, shock, or infection. While monitoring the surgical site is important for assessing wound healing and signs of infection, it is secondary to monitoring vital signs. Checking blood pressure and oxygen saturation are also important, but they are components of monitoring vital signs.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 88/min
- C. LDL cholesterol 110 mg/dL
- D. Respiratory rate of 16/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of myocardial infarction, a respiratory rate of 16/min should be reported to the provider. Changes in respiratory rate can indicate cardiac or pulmonary issues that need further evaluation. The other vital signs provided (blood pressure, heart rate, and LDL cholesterol level) are within normal limits and do not directly relate to potential complications following a myocardial infarction.
4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer magnesium sulfate.
- B. Place the client in the left lateral position.
- C. Monitor intake and output.
- D. Provide a low-sodium diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.
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