Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is receiving a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which client information should the healthcare professional report?

• A. Low-grade fever.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. High platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a low-grade fever can be an early sign of infection, which is crucial to report to the healthcare team for timely intervention. Shortness of breath and decreased urine output are also important to monitor, but in the context of postoperative care, infection is a more immediate concern. A high platelet count is not typically a priority in the immediate postoperative period.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What question should the nurse ask?

• A. Do you understand the voices are not real?
• B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
• C. Have you tried going to a quiet place when this occurs?
• D. What helps you ignore the voices?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Exploring strategies to ignore the hallucinations can help clients manage symptoms.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat more fiber to help with my bowel movements.
• B. I will need to have routine colonoscopies to monitor my condition.
• C. I will limit my intake of whole grains.
• D. I should consume a low-fat diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with Crohn's disease require routine colonoscopies to monitor disease progression and complications. This helps healthcare providers assess the status of the disease and make informed treatment decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while fiber may be beneficial for some digestive conditions, it can exacerbate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice C is incorrect as whole grains can be a good source of nutrients unless they individually trigger symptoms in the client. Choice D is also incorrect since a low-fat diet is not a specific requirement for managing Crohn's disease.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer anticoagulants
• C. Prepare for surgery
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.

5. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods that are high in potassium.
• B. I will avoid foods that are high in sodium.
• C. I will need to have my blood pressure checked regularly while taking this medication.
• D. I will need to have my potassium levels checked regularly while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

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