Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 60/min.
• B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum potassium 4 mEq/L.
• D. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is a finding that the nurse should report to the provider when caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypotension, so a low blood pressure reading should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 60/min is considered normal, but any further decrease should be monitored. A serum potassium level of 4 mEq/L is also within the normal range. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is typically considered normal as well.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

• A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• B. Increased urinary output.
• C. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg.
• D. Decreased peripheral edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Weigh the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours.
• C. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours. When a client is on TPN, it is crucial to monitor their blood glucose levels frequently to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Weighing the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (choice C) is important for infection control but does not directly relate to the client's metabolic status. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration (choice D) is not a standard practice and may introduce contaminants into the TPN solution.

4. How should fluid overload in a patient with heart failure be managed?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Increase fluid intake
• C. Provide oral fluids
• D. Provide chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the appropriate management for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output, thereby alleviating the fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by adding more fluid to an already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids is not specific enough to address the excess fluid in the body, and chest physiotherapy is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure patients.

5. A patient is 1 day postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer aspirin for pain management.
• B. Keep the affected leg in a dependent position.
• C. Flex the affected knee for 2 to 3 minutes every hour.
• D. Apply ice packs to the affected knee.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for a client 1 day postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty is to apply ice packs to the affected knee. Ice packs help reduce swelling and pain in such clients. Administering aspirin is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding postoperatively. Keeping the affected leg in a dependent position can impair circulation and increase the risk of complications. Flexing the affected knee for extended periods can strain the surgical site and hinder the healing process.

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