a nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about dietary modifications which of the following client statements indicates an understa
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.

2. When a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations says, 'It's hard not to listen to the voices,' which question should the nurse ask?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the client who experiences auditory hallucinations and finds it hard not to listen to the voices is, 'What helps you ignore what you are hearing?' This question focuses on promoting coping strategies and therapeutic communication, encouraging the client to share what techniques or interventions have been effective for managing the auditory hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect because it assumes the client does not understand that the voices are not real, which may not be the case. Choice B delves into the reasons behind the voices, which may not be immediately helpful in managing the current situation. Choice C suggests a physical solution of going to a private place, which may not address the underlying issue of coping with the voices.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with type 1 diabetes should rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region to prevent lipodystrophy. Choice A is incorrect because blood glucose levels should be checked regularly, not only when feeling sick. Choice B is incorrect as injecting insulin in the same spot each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as insulin injections are usually required based on meal schedules and blood glucose levels, not just when levels are above 200 mg/dL.

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