Nursing Elites

1. A client has acute dysphagia. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Providing a straw for consumption of liquids
• B. Encouraging larger bites
• C. Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position during meals
• D. Instructing the client to tilt head forward when swallowing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position during meals is the correct intervention for a client with acute dysphagia. This position helps prevent aspiration by facilitating swallowing. Providing a straw for consumption of liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration and is not recommended for clients with dysphagia. Encouraging larger bites (Choice B) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Instructing the client to tilt the head forward when swallowing (Choice D) is not the recommended technique for managing dysphagia as it does not address the underlying issue effectively.

2. What is your estimate of the population of pregnant woman needing tetanus toxoid vaccination?

• A. 632.5 C. 450.5
• B. 512.5 D. 332.5
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

3. What is the first step in decontamination?

• A. Immediately applying a chemical decontamination foam to the area of contamination
• B. Thoroughly washing and rinsing the patient with soap and water
• C. Immediately applying personal protective equipment
• D. Removing the patient's clothing and jewelry, then rinsing the patient with water

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first step in decontamination is to remove the patient's clothing and jewelry to prevent further exposure and then rinse the patient with water. This helps to eliminate any contaminants on the patient's body. Choice A is incorrect because applying a chemical decontamination foam should come after removing clothing. Choice B is incorrect as washing and rinsing the patient should follow the removal of clothing. Choice C is incorrect as personal protective equipment should be worn by the individual performing the decontamination, not applied to the patient.

4. Which type of nutritional deficiency results from inadequate absorption?

• A. Unmeasurable
• B. Primary deficiency
• C. Secondary deficiency
• D. Codependent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary deficiency. A nutritional deficiency resulting from decreased intake is called a primary deficiency. On the other hand, a secondary deficiency refers to a vitamin deficiency caused by inadequate absorption or use, increased requirements, excretion, or destruction. Choice A, 'Unmeasurable,' is incorrect as it does not describe a type of nutritional deficiency. Choice B, 'Primary deficiency,' is incorrect as it refers to a deficiency caused by decreased intake, not inadequate absorption. Choice D, 'Codependent,' is incorrect as it is unrelated to the context of nutritional deficiencies.

5. Which of the following conditions is not caused by energy drinks?

• A. Nervousness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Seizures
• D. Dental caries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Energy drinks are known for causing a variety of health issues, including nervousness, seizures, and an increased risk of dental caries due to their high sugar content. However, they do not cause bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Instead, energy drinks are associated with causing an increased or rapid heart rate, known as tachycardia. Therefore, out of the listed options, bradycardia is the condition not caused by energy drinks.

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