ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. Diego is undergoing blood transfusion of the first unit. The earliest signs of transfusion reactions are:
- A. Oliguria and jaundice
- B. Urticaria and wheezing
- C. Headache, chills, & fever
- D. Hypertension and flushing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
2. In comparison to infants born to women of normal weight, infants born to obese women are _____.
- A. less likely to have heart defects
- B. more likely to be of very low birthweight
- C. less likely to experience a complicated birth
- D. more likely to have neural tube defects
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Infants born to obese women are more likely to have neural tube defects compared to infants born to women of normal weight. This increased risk is attributed to factors such as poor maternal nutrition and increased inflammation during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because infants born to obese women have a higher risk of heart defects. Choice B is incorrect as infants born to obese women are more likely to have higher birthweights. Choice C is incorrect as obese women are more likely to experience complications during birth.
3. Which food items should be avoided by a child with lactose intolerance?
- A. Popcorn, seeds, and any foods containing nuts.
- B. Milk, cheese, ice cream, and puddings.
- C. Wheat, rye, barley, and commercially baked goods.
- D. Eggs, ham, bacon, and canned meats.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk, cheese, ice cream, and puddings should be avoided by a child with lactose intolerance because they contain lactose, which the child's body may have difficulty digesting. Option A is incorrect as popcorn, seeds, and foods containing nuts do not typically contain lactose. Option C lists wheat, rye, barley, and commercially baked goods, which are sources of gluten, not lactose. Option D includes eggs, ham, bacon, and canned meats, which are also not sources of lactose. Therefore, B is the most appropriate choice for a child with lactose intolerance.
4. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
- B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
- C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
- D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.
5. What is the primary function of a written nursing care plan?
- A. Evaluates whether nursing care goals have been achieved
- B. Ensures the provision of quality nursing care
- C. Assists in selecting the appropriate nursing interventions
- D. Facilitates the creation of a nursing diagnosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A written nursing care plan fundamentally serves to facilitate the development of a nursing diagnosis. This procedure involves analyzing patient data and identifying health problems that nurses can address independently. This analysis then aids in determining the most appropriate nursing interventions for the identified health issues. Although evaluating the achievement of nursing care goals is an important aspect, it is not the primary function of a nursing care plan. Similarly, while delivering quality nursing care is crucial, it is a broader concept that includes many other facets beyond just the initial nursing diagnosis and interventions.
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