ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test B 2019
1. Which of the following is a normal finding during assessment of a Chest tube in a 3 way bottle system?
- A. There is a continuous bubbling in the drainage bottle
- B. There is an intermittent bubbling in the suction control bottle
- C. The water fluctuates during inhalation of the patient
- D. There is 3 cm of water left in the water seal bottle
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
2. A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Nausea
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Dyspepsia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.
3. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.
4. When surgery is on-going, who coordinates the activities outside, including the family?
- A. Orderly/clerk C. Circulating Nurse
- B. Nurse Supervisor D. Anesthesiologist
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
5. A client with early Parkinson's disease has been prescribed pramipexole. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Increased salivation
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Discoloration of urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose, which may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Monitoring for hallucinations is crucial to ensure early detection and management to prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice B, increased salivation, is not a common adverse effect of pramipexole. Choice C, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pramipexole use. Choice D, discoloration of urine, is not a known adverse effect of pramipexole and is not typically a concern with this medication.