a nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

2. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

3. A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.

4. A client receiving warfarin is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin to reduce the risk of bleeding, as both medications can thin the blood. Choice A is incorrect because it is essential to eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables to maintain a steady intake of Vitamin K, which can impact warfarin's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect although important because INR checks are necessary but do not specifically show an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because while taking warfarin at the same time each day is beneficial for consistency, it does not directly address the interaction with aspirin.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Loss of interest in usual activities. Clients with PTSD often exhibit symptoms such as numbing, which can manifest as a loss of interest in activities they once enjoyed. Choice A, dependence on family and friends, is more indicative of seeking support rather than a direct symptom of PTSD. Choice C, ritualistic behavior, is more commonly associated with conditions like obsessive-compulsive disorder. Choice D, passive-aggressive behavior, is not a typical finding in clients with PTSD.

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