ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area
- B. Wipe stool from the skin using store-bought baby wipes
- C. Apply talcum powder to the irritated area
- D. Apply a warm compress to the irritated area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: Applying zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area is the most appropriate action for diaper dermatitis. Zinc oxide is a barrier cream that helps protect the skin and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because using store-bought baby wipes may contain chemicals or fragrances that can further irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect as talcum powder can also worsen the condition by drying out the skin. Choice D is incorrect because a warm compress is not typically used for diaper dermatitis; it may provide relief for other conditions but is not the best option for diaper dermatitis.
2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient's pain level post-surgery?
- A. Use a pain rating scale
- B. Check vital signs
- C. Observe for non-verbal cues
- D. Check for abnormal breath sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Using a pain rating scale is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's pain level post-surgery. Pain rating scales provide a standardized way for patients to communicate their pain intensity, allowing for accurate assessment and effective pain management. Checking vital signs (choice B) is important for monitoring a patient's overall health status but may not directly reflect their pain level. Observing for non-verbal cues (choice C) is valuable, but it may not always provide a clear indication of the pain intensity. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice D) is relevant for assessing respiratory status but does not directly evaluate the patient's pain level.
3. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
4. A client is being taught about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement should be included in the teaching?
- A. The PCA will deliver a double dose of medication when you push the button twice.
- B. Continuous PCA infusion is designed to allow fluctuating plasma medication levels.
- C. You should push the button before physical activity to allow maximum pain control.
- D. You can adjust the amount of pain medication you receive by pushing on the keypad.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about PCA is that the client can adjust the amount of pain medication they receive by pushing on the keypad. This empowers the client to control their pain management effectively. Choice A is incorrect because PCA systems are programmed to prevent double dosing when the button is pressed multiple times in quick succession. Choice B is incorrect as continuous PCA infusion aims to maintain a steady plasma medication level. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary to push the button before physical activity to ensure maximum pain control; the client should use the PCA as needed for pain relief.
5. A healthcare professional is receiving a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which client information should the healthcare professional report?
- A. Low-grade fever.
- B. Shortness of breath.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. High platelet count.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a postoperative client, a low-grade fever can be an early sign of infection, which is crucial to report to the healthcare team for timely intervention. Shortness of breath and decreased urine output are also important to monitor, but in the context of postoperative care, infection is a more immediate concern. A high platelet count is not typically a priority in the immediate postoperative period.
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