Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area
• B. Wipe stool from the skin using store-bought baby wipes
• C. Apply talcum powder to the irritated area
• D. Apply a warm compress to the irritated area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Applying zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area is the most appropriate action for diaper dermatitis. Zinc oxide is a barrier cream that helps protect the skin and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because using store-bought baby wipes may contain chemicals or fragrances that can further irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect as talcum powder can also worsen the condition by drying out the skin. Choice D is incorrect because a warm compress is not typically used for diaper dermatitis; it may provide relief for other conditions but is not the best option for diaper dermatitis.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a nasogastric tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
• B. Check for gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Place the client in the left lateral position during feedings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and subsequent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Flushing the tube with water before feedings (Choice A) is not necessary for preventing aspiration. Checking for gastric residuals (Choice B) helps monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration. Placing the client in the left lateral position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for preventing aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Breathe rapidly through your mouth when using the incentive spirometer.
• B. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea.
• C. Avoid drinking fluids during meals.
• D. Use diaphragmatic breathing during periods of dyspnea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.

4. A client who has glaucoma and a new prescription for timolol eyedrops is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will place the eye drops in the center of my eye.
• B. I will place pressure on the corner of my eye after using the drops.
• C. I should expect my tears to turn red after using the drops.
• D. I should expect the drops to appear cloudy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because placing pressure on the corner of the eye after using the drops helps in better absorption. Option A is incorrect because eye drops should be placed in the conjunctival sac, not the center of the eye. Option C is incorrect because tears turning red is not an expected outcome of using timolol eyedrops. Option D is incorrect because timolol eyedrops should not appear cloudy.

5. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
• B. Check the client's urinary output.
• C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• D. Assess the client's pain level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.

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