Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area
• B. Wipe stool from the skin using store-bought baby wipes
• C. Apply talcum powder to the irritated area
• D. Apply a warm compress to the irritated area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Applying zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area is the most appropriate action for diaper dermatitis. Zinc oxide is a barrier cream that helps protect the skin and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because using store-bought baby wipes may contain chemicals or fragrances that can further irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect as talcum powder can also worsen the condition by drying out the skin. Choice D is incorrect because a warm compress is not typically used for diaper dermatitis; it may provide relief for other conditions but is not the best option for diaper dermatitis.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client on the left side during feedings.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Check gastric residual every 2 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
• C. SpO2 of 95%
• D. Clear breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.

4. Nurses caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. A client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 when coughing
• B. Client drained a total of 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from the Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours following surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 per minute
• D. The client has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with chemotherapy and a low neutrophil count is at risk for infection and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this information to the provider is crucial to ensure appropriate monitoring and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk that requires immediate provider notification. A client reporting pain with pleurisy, a client draining fluid post-surgery, or a client with a heart rate of 98 per minute postoperative are not urgent enough to warrant immediate reporting compared to the client at risk for infection.

5. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Critical pathways have unlimited timeframes for completion.
• B. Critical pathways are designed to decrease health care costs.
• C. Patients follow the critical pathway if variances occur.
• D. Budgets are used to create the critical pathway.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.

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