ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should suspect that the client has developed an infection based on which of the following findings?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
- C. Heart rate of 92/min
- D. Drainage at the surgical site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F) is indicative of infection postoperatively. Fever is a common sign of infection, and temperatures above the normal range should raise suspicion. The other vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate) may be within an acceptable range, and some drainage at the surgical site can be expected postoperatively. However, the elevated temperature is a more specific indicator of a potential infection that requires immediate attention.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
3. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.
4. A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. What information should be included?
- A. This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds.
- B. This type of seizure can be mistaken for daydreaming.
- C. The child usually has an aura prior to onset.
- D. This type of seizure has a gradual onset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because absence seizures are brief and can be mistaken for daydreaming. Choice A is incorrect because absence seizures typically last a few seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds. Choice C is incorrect as absence seizures usually occur suddenly without an aura. Choice D is incorrect because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.
5. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing laboratory findings for a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hgb 12.5 g/dL
- B. Platelets 250,000/mm3
- C. WBC 14,000/mm3
- D. Hct 40%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Hct 40%'. An abnormal hematocrit (Hct) level can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, overhydration, or blood disorders, and requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. Hgb 12.5 g/dL (Choice A) is a normal hemoglobin level, Platelets 250,000/mm3 (Choice B) is a normal platelet count, and WBC 14,000/mm3 (Choice C) is slightly elevated but not significantly high to require urgent reporting.
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