Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should suspect that the client has developed an infection based on which of the following findings?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
• B. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
• C. Heart rate of 92/min
• D. Drainage at the surgical site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F) is indicative of infection postoperatively. Fever is a common sign of infection, and temperatures above the normal range should raise suspicion. The other vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate) may be within an acceptable range, and some drainage at the surgical site can be expected postoperatively. However, the elevated temperature is a more specific indicator of a potential infection that requires immediate attention.

2. A client with hypertension is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse on managing blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take medication at bedtime.
• B. Check blood pressure once a week.
• C. Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.
• D. Stop taking medication once blood pressure is within the normal range.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.' Using a properly fitting cuff is essential for accurate blood pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be individualized and not specified in the question. Choice B is incorrect as checking blood pressure once a week may not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension and complications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position during feedings.
• C. Administer the feedings over 30 minutes.
• D. Warm the formula before administering it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position during enteral feedings. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting the downward flow of the feeding and reducing the risk of regurgitation into the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings is not directly related to preventing aspiration. Choice C is incorrect because the rate of administration does not directly impact the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because warming the formula does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.

4. When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall
• B. Apply lubricant and stimulate peristalsis
• C. Apply pressure to the abdomen to assist with the removal
• D. Increase fluid intake before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma and is the appropriate method for addressing fecal impaction. Choice B is incorrect as stimulating peristalsis will not directly assist in evacuating the impacted stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen is not the recommended method for stool evacuation. Choice D is incorrect as increasing fluid intake does not directly aid in digitally evacuating the stool.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Proteinuria of 1+.
• B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
• D. Nonpitting ankle edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.

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