what is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.

2. How should signs of dehydration in an elderly patient be assessed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in elderly patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity or the skin's ability to return to its normal position after being pinched. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity, becoming less flexible and slower to return to its original state. Checking for dry mucous membranes (Choice B), monitoring for sunken eyes (Choice C), and checking capillary refill (Choice D) are all relevant assessments in dehydration but are not as specific or sensitive as monitoring skin turgor. Dry mucous membranes and sunken eyes are indicators of dehydration, while capillary refill is more related to circulatory status and less specific to dehydration.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lorazepam is the appropriate intervention for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam helps reduce agitation and prevent complications during this withdrawal phase. Choice A, providing a low-sodium diet, is not directly related to managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Choice C, keeping the client in a supine position, is not necessary and may not address the client's withdrawal symptoms. Choice D, placing the client in restraints, should only be considered if the client is at risk of harming themselves or others, but it is not the primary intervention for managing alcohol withdrawal.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting fluid intake is essential in managing patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen kidney function. Increasing potassium intake is not recommended as patients with kidney disease often need to limit potassium. Providing a high-protein diet may put extra strain on the kidneys, so it is not ideal. Administering IV antibiotics is not a standard treatment for chronic kidney disease.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

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