what is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.

2. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection prevention. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because avoiding cleaning the cat's litter box during pregnancy reduces the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is incorrect because visiting someone with chickenpox should be avoided as it is highly contagious. Choice C is incorrect as handwashing after gardening should involve soap and water, not just hot water, for effective infection prevention. Choice D is incorrect because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

4. A charge nurse is preparing to lead negotiations among nursing staff due to conflict about overtime requirements. Which of the following strategies should the nurse use to promote effective negotiation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In negotiating conflicts, it is crucial to attempt to understand both sides of the issue. This strategy helps the charge nurse gain insights into the perspectives and concerns of all parties involved, facilitating a more effective negotiation process. Choice A is not ideal as identifying solutions prior to negotiation may overlook important viewpoints or needs. Choice B is vague and does not provide a specific action plan for resolving the conflict. Choice D is incorrect as personalizing the conflict can lead to biased decision-making and hinder the negotiation process.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

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