ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Apply a dry dressing.
- B. Cleanse the wound with normal saline.
- C. Perform debridement as needed.
- D. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. For a stage 2 pressure injury, maintaining a moist environment is crucial for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help achieve this by promoting autolytic debridement and creating a barrier against bacteria while allowing the wound to heal. Applying a dry dressing (Choice A) may not provide the necessary moisture for healing. Cleansing the wound with normal saline (Choice B) is essential, but a hydrocolloid dressing is more specific for promoting healing in this case. Performing debridement as needed (Choice C) is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, as they involve partial-thickness skin loss without slough or eschar.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should inject this medication once a day, at the same time each day.
- B. You should expect your blood glucose level to increase immediately after administration.
- C. You should rotate injection sites between your abdomen and thigh.
- D. You should inject this medication with your meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include is to inject insulin glargine once a day, at the same time each day. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect because insulin glargine does not cause an immediate increase in blood glucose levels. Option C is important for preventing lipodystrophy but is not specific to insulin glargine administration. Option D is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically administered at the same time each day, regardless of meals.
3. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid foods that are high in potassium.
- B. I will avoid foods that are high in sodium.
- C. I will need to have my blood pressure checked regularly while taking this medication.
- D. I will need to have my potassium levels checked regularly while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.
4. A nurse is caring for an infant who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an expected finding?
- A. Weak femoral pulses.
- B. Frequent nosebleeds.
- C. Upper extremity hypotension.
- D. Increased intracranial pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Weak femoral pulses are an expected finding in an infant with coarctation of the aorta. The narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, resulting in weak or absent femoral pulses. Frequent nosebleeds (Choice B) are not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta. Upper extremity hypotension (Choice C) is not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta; instead, blood pressure is usually elevated in the upper extremities. Increased intracranial pressure (Choice D) is not directly related to coarctation of the aorta.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
- C. Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
- D. Calcium 9 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.
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