ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Apply a dry dressing.
- B. Cleanse the wound with normal saline.
- C. Perform debridement as needed.
- D. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. For a stage 2 pressure injury, maintaining a moist environment is crucial for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help achieve this by promoting autolytic debridement and creating a barrier against bacteria while allowing the wound to heal. Applying a dry dressing (Choice A) may not provide the necessary moisture for healing. Cleansing the wound with normal saline (Choice B) is essential, but a hydrocolloid dressing is more specific for promoting healing in this case. Performing debridement as needed (Choice C) is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, as they involve partial-thickness skin loss without slough or eschar.
2. A nurse is discussing group treatment and therapy with a client. The nurse should include which of the following as being a characteristic of a therapeutic group?
- A. The group is organized in an autocratic structure
- B. The group encourages members to focus on a particular issue
- C. The group must be led by a licensed psychiatrist
- D. The group encourages clients to form dependent relationships
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Therapeutic groups indeed encourage members to focus on particular issues. This focus helps individuals address specific concerns, work through challenges, and support one another in a structured setting. Choice A is incorrect because therapeutic groups typically promote a democratic structure that values input from all members rather than an autocratic one. Choice C is incorrect as therapeutic groups can be led by various mental health professionals, not solely by licensed psychiatrists. Choice D is incorrect; therapeutic groups aim to foster independent growth and self-reliance rather than promoting dependent relationships.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's identification band
- B. Verify the provider's prescription
- C. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
- D. Obtain the client's vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs is to check the client's identification band. This step is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered to the right client, preventing any errors or adverse reactions. Verifying the provider's prescription, priming the IV tubing, and obtaining the client's vital signs are important steps in the process but should follow the initial identification check to prioritize patient safety.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Elevated hemoglobin
- B. Elevated white blood cell count
- C. Decreased fibrinogen level
- D. Decreased platelet count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Stay in bed for at least 1 hour if unable to fall asleep.
- B. Take a 1-hour nap during the day.
- C. Perform exercise before bed.
- D. Eat a light snack before bedtime.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to eat a light snack before bedtime. Consuming a light snack can help promote sleep by preventing discomfort from hunger. Choice A is incorrect because staying in bed for too long when unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice B is incorrect as taking a nap during the day can interfere with nighttime sleep. Choice C is incorrect as exercising before bed can increase alertness and make falling asleep more difficult.
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