ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which dietary recommendation should be included?
- A. Consume food high in bran fiber.
- B. Increase intake of milk products.
- C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
- D. Increase foods high in gluten.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps reduce IBS symptoms by promoting regular bowel movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products can exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with IBS, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high FODMAP content, and increasing foods high in gluten could be problematic for individuals with gluten sensitivities or celiac disease, which are common in some with IBS.
2. A client with acute diverticulitis should have which intervention included in the care plan?
- A. Administer a cleansing enema.
- B. Initiate a low-fiber diet.
- C. Apply moist heat to the abdomen.
- D. Provide a clear liquid diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute diverticulitis is to initiate a low-fiber diet. A low-fiber diet helps manage acute diverticulitis by reducing irritation to the colon, allowing it to heal. Administering a cleansing enema (Choice A) can worsen diverticulitis by increasing pressure within the colon. Applying moist heat to the abdomen (Choice C) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying cause. Providing a clear liquid diet (Choice D) is not ideal for diverticulitis management as it lacks the necessary nutrients for healing and may not provide enough bulk to prevent further irritation.
3. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?
- A. INR of 1.1
- B. PT of 12 seconds
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Platelet count of 150,000
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Limit fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods when taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges can help maintain adequate potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products. Choice C is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, the general instruction is not to limit fluids to prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually best taken during the day to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Vomiting.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Epigastric pain.
- D. Contractions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 33 weeks of gestation, the nurse should monitor the client for contractions. Contractions can indicate preterm labor, which requires immediate attention. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not typically associated with amniocentesis complications at this gestational age.
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