how should a nurse monitor for infection in a patient with a central line
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. How should a healthcare professional monitor for infection in a patient with a central line?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: A. Checking the central line dressing daily is crucial to monitor for signs of infection around the insertion site. This practice helps in early detection of any changes such as redness, swelling, or discharge, which are indicators of a potential infection. Monitoring for signs of redness (choice B) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection; other symptoms like discharge and tenderness should also be observed. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is not directly related to monitoring central line infections. Monitoring temperature (choice D) is important for detecting systemic signs of infection but may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line site.

2. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing acute mania and having obtained a verbal prescription for restraints, the nurse must ensure to obtain a formal written prescription for restraint within 4 hours. This is crucial to maintain the safety and proper care of the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because renewing the prescription every 8 hours, checking pulse rate every 30 minutes, and documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes do not address the immediate need for a formal restraint prescription within 4 hours to manage the client's acute mania effectively.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.

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